Nokea
When a medication is added to a regimen for a synergistic effect, the combined effect of the drugs is:
- A. The sum of the effects of each drug individually
- B. Greater than the sum of the effects of each drug individually
- C. Less than the effect of each drug individually
- D. Not predictable, as it varies with each individual
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is correct because synergy means the combined effect exceeds the sum of individual effects, enhancing therapeutic outcomes beyond additive results. Choice A is incorrect as it describes an additive, not synergistic, effect. Choice C is wrong because synergy doesn't reduce efficacy below individual effects. Choice D is incorrect since synergy is a predictable pharmacological principle, not entirely variable.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with heart failure who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which sign of digoxin toxicity should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Insomnia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bradycardia. Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity, as digoxin can cause decreased heart rate. Therefore, monitoring the client for signs of bradycardia is crucial. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hypertension is not typically associated with digoxin toxicity; instead, hypotension may occur. Hyperglycemia is not a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Insomnia is also not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity; instead, some patients may experience visual disturbances, confusion, or other neurological symptoms.
The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which sign of digoxin toxicity should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Insomnia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia due to its effects on the heart's electrical conduction system. Monitoring for a slow heart rate is crucial as it indicates potential toxicity. Hypertension, hyperglycemia, and insomnia are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Hypertension is more commonly seen in other conditions, hyperglycemia is not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity, and insomnia is not a recognized symptom of digoxin toxicity.
The client is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which lab test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. International normalized ratio (INR)
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Fibrinogen levels
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the appropriate lab test to monitor the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, a different anticoagulant that affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Fibrinogen levels are not specific to monitoring heparin therapy.
When assessing a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor regularly?
- A. Albumin
- B. Calcium
- C. Glucose
- D. Alkaline phosphatase
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most important laboratory value to monitor regularly in clients receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is glucose. TPN solutions contain high concentrations of glucose, which can lead to hyperglycemia. Monitoring glucose levels is crucial to detect and prevent hyperglycemia, a common complication associated with TPN administration. Albumin (Choice A) levels are not typically affected by TPN administration. Calcium (Choice B) and alkaline phosphatase (Choice D) are not directly impacted by TPN and are not the primary values to monitor in TPN therapy.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone 1 g IM to a client who has a pelvic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?
- A. Administer the medication via IM bolus over 5 minutes.
- B. Reconstitute with 0.9% sodium chloride.
- C. Discard the reconstituted medication if it is cloudy.
- D. Administer the medication in a large muscle.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Administering ceftriaxone in a large muscle is crucial for proper absorption and to reduce the risk of pain or tissue irritation. Intramuscular administration of ceftriaxone helps achieve optimal therapeutic levels in the bloodstream for the treatment of the pelvic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not recommended as ceftriaxone should not be administered as a bolus over 5 minutes. Choice B is irrelevant because the question is about the administration route, not the reconstitution process. Choice C is also irrelevant as it does not pertain to the administration but to the quality of the reconstituted medication.