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When a neurologist asks a patient to smile, which cranial nerve is being tested?
- A. CN II
- B. CN X
- C. CN VII
- D. CN XI
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. The cranial nerve responsible for facial expression is CN VII, the facial nerve.
2. When a neurologist asks a patient to smile, they are testing the function of CN VII.
3. CN II (optic nerve) is responsible for vision, not facial expression.
4. CN X (vagus nerve) is responsible for various functions like heart rate and digestion, not facial expression.
5. CN XI (accessory nerve) is responsible for shoulder movement, not facial expression.
Summary:
Testing a patient's ability to smile involves assessing the function of CN VII, the facial nerve. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are associated with different functions and not responsible for controlling facial muscles.
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Which information indicates a nurse has a good understanding of a goal? It is a statement describing the patient’s accomplishments without a time
- A. restriction.
- B. It is a realistic statement predicting any negative responses to treatments.
- C. It is a broad statement describing a desired change in a patient’s behavior.
- D. It is a measurable change in a patient’s physical state.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: A goal should be measurable to track progress effectively.
Step 2: The statement "a measurable change in a patient's physical state" indicates a specific and quantifiable outcome.
Step 3: This aligns with the SMART criteria for goal setting - Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound.
Step 4: Other choices lack the specificity and measurability required for a clear goal.
Step 5: Choice A talks about restriction, which is not directly related to understanding a goal.
Step 6: Choice B focuses on negative responses, which is not necessarily indicative of understanding the goal.
Step 7: Choice C is vague and lacks the specificity of a measurable outcome.
A nurse who is caring for an unresponsive client formulates the nursing diagnosis, 'Risk for Aspiration related to reduced level of consciousness.' The nurse documents this nursing diagnosis as correct based on the understanding that which of the following is a characteristic of this type of diagnosis?
- A. Is written as a two-part statement
- B. Describes human response to a health problem
- C. Describes potential for enhancement to a higher state
- D. Made when not enough evidence supports the problem
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a nursing diagnosis typically consists of two parts: the problem (Risk for Aspiration) and the related factor (reduced level of consciousness). This format helps clearly identify the client's health issue and its cause. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to a nursing diagnosis focusing on the client's response. Choice C is incorrect as it describes an outcome, not a diagnosis. Choice D is incorrect as a nursing diagnosis should be based on evidence, not made without support. Therefore, the correct choice is A due to the structure and clarity it provides in identifying the client's risk.
Which nursing actions will the nurse perform in the evaluation phase of the nursing process? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Set priorities for patient care.
- B. Determine whether outcomes or standards are met.
- C. Ambulate patient 25 feet in the hallway.
- D. Document results of goal achievement.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the evaluation phase of the nursing process, the nurse sets priorities for patient care to determine the effectiveness of nursing interventions. This involves comparing achieved outcomes with established goals. Choices B and D are related to evaluation as they involve determining whether outcomes or standards are met and documenting results of goal achievement, respectively. However, choice C, ambulating the patient, is an intervention that would typically occur in the implementation phase, not the evaluation phase. Therefore, the correct answer is A because setting priorities for patient care is a key component of the evaluation phase.
A client is admitted to an acute care facility with a myocardial infarction. During the admission history, the nurse learns that the client also has hypertension and progressive systemic sclerosis. For a client with this disease, the nurse is most likely to formulate which nursing diagnosis?
- A. Risk for impaired skin integrity
- B. Imbalanced nutrition: Risk for more than
- C. Constipation body requirements
- D. Ineffective thermoregulation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for impaired skin integrity. Myocardial infarction, hypertension, and progressive systemic sclerosis can lead to impaired circulation and skin breakdown. Clients with these conditions are at risk for pressure ulcers due to decreased blood flow and compromised skin integrity. The other options, B: Imbalanced nutrition, C: Constipation, and D: Ineffective thermoregulation, do not directly relate to the client's conditions or the potential complications associated with them. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client would be A: Risk for impaired skin integrity.
A client is being prepared for cardiac catheterization. The nurse performs an initial assessment and records the vital signs. Which of the following data collected can be classified as subjective data?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Nausea
- C. Heart rate
- D. Respiratory rate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Subjective data refers to information provided by the client based on their feelings, perceptions, or beliefs. Nausea is a symptom that the client experiences and reports subjectively. The client feels nauseous, which is not something directly measurable like blood pressure, heart rate, or respiratory rate. Therefore, nausea is the correct choice for subjective data. Blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate are all objective data that can be measured and observed. Blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate are all objective data that can be measured and observed.