When a nurse is educating a group of women about the risks of breast cancer, she includes which of the following common risk factor?
- A. Older than 30 years of age
- B. Family history of breast cancer
- C. African-American heritage
- D. Breast tenderness, without any sensation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Family history is a well-established risk factor for breast cancer.
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From fertilization to week 8 of proliferative phase of the uterine pregnancy, the conceptus is called (menstrual) cycle? ________.
- A. estrogens
- B. a fetus
- C. progesterones
- D. an embryo
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: an embryo. From fertilization to week 8 of the proliferative phase of uterine pregnancy, the conceptus is referred to as an embryo. This is because during this period, the fertilized egg undergoes rapid cell division and differentiation, leading to the formation of distinct embryonic structures and the beginning of organ development. The term "fetus" is used after the embryonic stage, typically from week 9 onwards. Choices A and C, estrogens and progesterones respectively, are hormones involved in regulating the menstrual cycle and maintaining pregnancy but are not terms used to describe the developing conceptus itself during this specific timeframe.
Which of the following is responsible for secondary sex characteristics in females?
- A. Estrogens
- B. Progesterone
- C. Follicl
- D. stimulating hormone (FSH)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Estrogens are responsible for secondary sex characteristics in females as they promote breast development, regulate the menstrual cycle, and contribute to the distribution of body fat. Progesterone mainly prepares the uterus for pregnancy. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) plays a role in the development of ovarian follicles and the maturation of eggs but does not directly influence female secondary sex characteristics.
A client with the herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2) undergoes a viral shedding. Which of the following statements is true when caring for a client with HSV-2?
- A. An outbreak of the HSV-2 infection is often self-limiting and hence a treatment may be unnecessary.
- B. Clients don't seek treatment because of embarrassment.
- C. Healthcare providers and laboratories are not required by law to report.
- D. Reporting is up to the client, not the provider.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: HSV-2 outbreaks are often self-limiting, though antiviral medications can help manage symptoms.
Regarding gross anatomy of male reproductive system
- A. Dartos muscle is responsible to raise and lower the testes
- B. Ductus deferens penetrate the prostate gland to connect with prostatic urethra
- C. Anterior lobe of prostate gland is the main glandular tissue
- D. Buck's fascia encloses body of penis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the ductus deferens penetrates the prostate gland to connect with the prostatic urethra, forming the ejaculatory duct. This allows for the transport of sperm from the epididymis to the urethra during ejaculation.
A: Dartos muscle is responsible for wrinkling the scrotal skin but not raising and lowering the testes.
C: The anterior lobe of the prostate gland mainly consists of fibromuscular tissue, not glandular tissue.
D: Buck's fascia surrounds the corpora cavernosa and the corpus spongiosum of the penis, not the body of the penis itself.
Seven days after ovulation, pituitary secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) decreases rapidly. What is the cause of this decrease in secretion?
- A. The anterior pituitary gland becomes unresponsive to the stimulatory effect of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
- B. Estrogen from the developing follicles exerts a feedback inhibition on the hypothalamus
- C. The rise in body temperature inhibits hypothalamic release of GnRH
- D. Secretion of estrogen and progesterone by the corpus luteum suppresses hypothalamic secretion of GnRH and pituitary secretion of LH
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: After ovulation, the follicle transforms into the corpus luteum.
Step 2: The corpus luteum secretes estrogen and progesterone.
Step 3: Estrogen and progesterone exert negative feedback on the hypothalamus.
Step 4: This inhibits the secretion of GnRH from the hypothalamus.
Step 5: Decreased GnRH leads to reduced LH secretion from the pituitary.
Therefore, the correct answer is D because the secretion of estrogen and progesterone by the corpus luteum suppresses the hypothalamic secretion of GnRH, resulting in decreased pituitary LH secretion.
Summary:
A: Incorrect. The anterior pituitary gland's responsiveness to GnRH is not the cause of the decrease in LH secretion.
B: Incorrect. Estrogen exerts negative feedback on the hypothalamus, not the pituitary.
C: Incorrect. Rise in body temperature does not directly inhibit GnRH secretion