Nokea
When a woman is receiving postpartum epidural morphine, the nurse should plan to observe for which of the following side effects to occur within the first 3 hours?
- A. nausea and vomiting
- B. itching
- C. urinary retention
- D. somnolence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A side effect of postpartum epidural morphine is the onset of itching within 3 hours of injection and lasting up to 10 hours. Nausea and vomiting might occur 4-7 hours after injection. While urinary retention is a side effect of postpartum epidural morphine, it is not typically assessed within the first 3 hours. Somnolence is a rare side effect and not commonly observed within the first 3 hours. Therefore, itching is the most likely side effect to be observed within the initial 3 hours after administering postpartum epidural morphine.
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When teaching a woman about possible side effects of hormone replacement therapy, the nurse should include information about all of the following except:
- A. Hypoglycemia in diabetic women.
- B. The possible return of monthly menses when taking combination hormones.
- C. Increased risk of gallbladder disease.
- D. Increased risk of breast, cervical, and ovarian cancer with long-term use.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypoglycemia in diabetic women.' When educating a woman about hormone replacement therapy, it is important to discuss the possible side effects. It is true that monthly menses might return when taking combination hormones, as the progestin can cause this. Additionally, there is an increased risk of gallbladder disease associated with hormone replacement therapy. Furthermore, long-term use of hormone replacement therapy is linked to an increased risk of breast, cervical, and ovarian cancer. However, hypoglycemia is not a common side effect of hormone replacement therapy, especially in diabetic women. In fact, estrogen can have a positive impact on glucose control in some cases, so hypoglycemia would not be a typical concern.
When a client wishes to improve her appearance by removing excess skin from her face and neck, the nurse should provide teaching regarding which of the following procedures?
- A. dermabrasion
- B. rhinoplasty
- C. blepharoplasty
- D. rhytidectomy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'rhytidectomy.' Rhytidectomy, commonly known as a face-lift, is the procedure for removing excess skin from the face and neck. Dermabrasion involves spraying a chemical to freeze the skin lightly, followed by abrasion with sandpaper or a revolving wire brush, used for removing scars, severe acne, and tattoo pigment. Rhinoplasty is for improving the nose's appearance by reshaping the nasal skeleton and overlying skin. Blepharoplasty removes loose and protruding fat from the upper and lower eyelids. Therefore, when a client wants to address excess skin in the face and neck, rhytidectomy is the appropriate procedure.
Which of the following methods of contraception is able to reduce the transmission of HIV and other STDs?
- A. intrauterine device (IUD)
- B. Norplant
- C. oral contraceptives
- D. vaginal sponge
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is the vaginal sponge. The vaginal sponge, when used with foam or jelly contraception, acts as a barrier method that can reduce the transmission of HIV and other STDs, in addition to preventing pregnancy. In contrast, IUDs, Norplant, and oral contraceptives are effective in preventing pregnancy but do not provide protection against the transmission of HIV and STDs. IUDs prevent pregnancy by affecting sperm movement and survival, Norplant releases hormones to prevent ovulation, and oral contraceptives work by inhibiting ovulation. However, these methods do not create a physical barrier against HIV and STD transmission. It is important to counsel clients using methods like IUDs, Norplant, and oral contraceptives to also use chemical or barrier contraceptives to lower the risk of HIV or STD transmission.
Which condition is associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C?
- A. rickets
- B. marasmus
- C. kwashiorkor
- D. scurvy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Scurvy is indeed associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C. Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy, which is characterized by weakness, anemia, gum disease, and skin hemorrhages. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because rickets is caused by vitamin D deficiency, marasmus is due to severe malnutrition leading to wasting, and kwashiorkor is a form of severe protein-energy malnutrition.
Which of the following home-care strategies is most likely to negatively impact the body image of a client with Cushing's syndrome?
- A. providing safety measures to prevent falls
- B. taking medications as prescribed
- C. wearing a medical ID indicating Cushing's syndrome
- D. having regular health assessments
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: All of the strategies listed are essential components of home care for a client with Cushing's syndrome. However, wearing a medical ID indicating Cushing's syndrome is the correct answer as it can have a negative impact on body image. This choice may constantly remind the client of their condition, potentially affecting their self-image and confidence. On the contrary, providing safety measures to prevent falls (Choice A) would enhance body image by promoting safety and preventing injuries. Taking medications as prescribed (Choice B) is likely to improve body image by managing symptoms effectively. Having regular health assessments (Choice D) demonstrates good self-care and can positively contribute to body image by showing a commitment to maintaining health.