Nokea
When administering Phenytoin, what should you monitor?
- A. Behavior
- B. Therapeutic blood levels
- C. For signs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When administering Phenytoin, monitoring the patient's behavior is important to assess for any changes that may indicate adverse effects. Monitoring therapeutic blood levels helps ensure the medication is within the effective range and not causing toxicity. Additionally, being vigilant for signs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a severe skin reaction associated with Phenytoin use, is crucial for early detection and intervention. Therefore, monitoring behavior, therapeutic blood levels, and for signs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome are all essential when administering Phenytoin.
You may also like to solve these questions
What is the classification of furosemide?
- A. Loop diuretic
- B. Anticoagulant
- C. Iron supplement
- D. Anticonvulsant
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is classified as a loop diuretic, not an anticoagulant, iron supplement, or anticonvulsant. Loop diuretics, like furosemide, act in the loop of Henle in the kidney to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption, leading to increased urine output. This mechanism makes them effective in treating conditions such as edema and hypertension. Therefore, the correct classification for furosemide is a loop diuretic (Choice A).
A client has a new prescription for Folic Acid. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take this medication with food.
- B. I need to monitor for skin rash while taking this medication.
- C. I need to increase my intake of green, leafy vegetables.
- D. I will stop taking this medication if I feel nauseous.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Folic acid is naturally found in green, leafy vegetables such as spinach and broccoli. Increasing the intake of these vegetables can supplement the prescribed folic acid and help maintain adequate levels in the body. It is essential to understand that dietary sources of folic acid can complement the medication and support overall health. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking folic acid with food, monitoring for skin rash, or stopping the medication if feeling nauseous do not directly relate to enhancing the therapeutic effects of folic acid through dietary intake.
A healthcare professional in a provider's clinic is caring for a client who reports erectile dysfunction and requests a prescription for sildenafil. Which of the following medications currently prescribed for the client is a contraindication to taking sildenafil?
- A. Isosorbide
- B. Phenytoin
- C. Metronidazole
- D. Prednisone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sildenafil is contraindicated with nitrates like isosorbide due to the risk of severe hypotension. Isosorbide is a nitrate that can potentiate the hypotensive effects of sildenafil, leading to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Therefore, it is essential to avoid concurrent use of isosorbide and sildenafil to prevent adverse effects. Phenytoin, metronidazole, and prednisone do not have significant interactions with sildenafil and are not contraindicated when used together.
A client has a new prescription for Beclomethasone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take the medication with meals.
- B. Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.
- C. Rinse your mouth after each use.
- D. Limit fluid intake while taking this medication.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Rinse your mouth after each use.' Beclomethasone can cause oral candidiasis (thrush) as an adverse effect. Rinsing the mouth after each use helps reduce the risk of developing thrush by removing any residue of the medication from the mouth, which can promote fungal growth. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking the medication with meals, increasing calcium-rich foods intake, or limiting fluid intake are not specific instructions related to minimizing the side effect of oral candidiasis associated with Beclomethasone.
A client has a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria. Which of the following Cephalosporin antibiotics should be administered IV to treat this infection?
- A. Cefaclor
- B. Cefazolin
- C. Cefepime
- D. Cephalexin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In treating a Cerebrospinal fluid infection caused by gram-negative bacteria, Cefepime, a fourth-generation cephalosporin, is the most suitable choice due to its enhanced efficacy against gram-negative organisms in such infections. Cefaclor (Choice A) is a second-generation cephalosporin more commonly used for respiratory tract infections. Cefazolin (Choice B) is a first-generation cephalosporin often used for skin and soft tissue infections. Cephalexin (Choice D) is a first-generation cephalosporin indicated for skin and urinary tract infections, but not the optimal choice for a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria.