Nokea
When assessing a 5-year-old boy with major trauma, his blood pressure is 70/40 mm Hg, and his pulse rate is 140 beats/min and weak. The child's blood pressure:
- A. indicates decompensated shock.
- B. reflects adequate compensation.
- C. suggests increased intracranial pressure.
- D. is appropriate based on his age.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a 5-year-old boy with major trauma, a blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 140 beats/min, and weak, indicate decompensated shock. This presentation signifies inadequate perfusion, leading to compensatory mechanisms being overwhelmed, resulting in decompensated shock. Choice B is incorrect as the vital signs suggest the body is unable to adequately compensate for the trauma. Choice C is incorrect as the vital signs are more indicative of shock rather than increased intracranial pressure. Choice D is incorrect as such low blood pressure is not appropriate for a child of this age and indicates a critical condition.
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In contrast to the contractions associated with true labor, Braxton-Hicks contractions:
- A. generally follow rupture of the amniotic sac and occur with regularity.
- B. may be intensified by activity and are accompanied by a pink discharge.
- C. do not increase in intensity and are alleviated by a change in position.
- D. consistently become stronger and are not alleviated by changing position.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Braxton-Hicks contractions are irregular and usually do not increase in intensity. Unlike true labor contractions, they tend to alleviate with a change in position, making option C the correct choice. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Braxton-Hicks contractions do not follow rupture of the amniotic sac, are not intensified by activity or accompanied by a pink discharge, and do not consistently become stronger or are not alleviated by changing position.
When assessing a 30-year-old female in labor, what should the EMT do?
- A. Ask the mother when she is expecting to deliver.
- B. Avoid questioning the patient about her medical history.
- C. Determine the stage of her labor by examining her.
- D. Recall that delivery is imminent if she is crowning.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During the assessment of a 30-year-old female in labor, the EMT should be aware that delivery is imminent if she is crowning. Crowning indicates that the baby's head is visible at the vaginal opening, signaling that the birth is progressing rapidly and the baby will soon be delivered. This is a critical moment that requires preparedness for the birth process and ensuring a safe delivery environment. Choice A is incorrect because asking the mother when she is expecting to deliver is not relevant when the baby's head is visible at the vaginal opening. Choice B is incorrect as obtaining the patient's medical history is essential for providing appropriate care. Choice C is incorrect because determining the stage of labor by examining the patient is important but recognizing crowning indicates that delivery is imminent and requires immediate action.
What is the main function of the uterus?
- A. Dilate and expel the baby from the cervix.
- B. House the fetus as it grows for 40 weeks.
- C. Provide a cushion and protect the fetus from infection.
- D. Provide oxygen and other nutrients to the fetus.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The main function of the uterus is to house and nurture the growing fetus for approximately 40 weeks during pregnancy. It provides the necessary environment for the fetus to develop and grow until it is ready for birth. Choice A is incorrect as the cervix, not the uterus, dilates during labor to allow the baby to pass through. Choice C is incorrect as while the uterus does provide a protective environment, its primary function is not to act as a cushion. Choice D is incorrect as the placenta, not the uterus, is responsible for providing oxygen and nutrients to the fetus.
Which of the following statements regarding 2-rescuer child CPR is correct?
- A. The chest should be compressed with one hand, and a compression-to-ventilation ratio of 30:2 should be used.
- B. The chest should not be allowed to fully recoil in between compressions.
- C. A compression-to-ventilation ratio of 15:2 should be used if an advanced airway is in place.
- D. Compress the chest with one or two hands to a depth equal to one-third the diameter of the chest.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During 2-rescuer child CPR, it is important to compress the chest with one or two hands to a depth equal to one-third the diameter of the chest. This technique ensures effective chest compressions are being delivered to help circulate blood and oxygenate the child's body. Choice A is incorrect because both hands should be used for chest compressions in 2-rescuer CPR. Choice B is incorrect as allowing the chest to fully recoil between compressions is essential to create negative pressure and facilitate blood flow back to the heart. Choice C is incorrect as the standard compression-to-ventilation ratio for child CPR is 30:2, regardless of whether an advanced airway is in place.
Seizures in children MOST often result from:
- A. a life-threatening infection.
- B. an inflammatory process in the brain.
- C. an abrupt rise in body temperature.
- D. a temperature greater than 102°F.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Seizures in children most often result from febrile seizures, which are triggered by an abrupt rise in body temperature. Febrile seizures are common in young children, especially between the ages of 6 months to 5 years, and are usually associated with viral infections that cause a sudden spike in body temperature. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while infections, inflammatory processes, and high temperatures can sometimes lead to seizures, the most common cause of seizures in children is an abrupt increase in body temperature, known as febrile seizures.