Nokea
When assessing a client for signs and symptoms of a fluid volume deficit, the nurse would be most concerned with which finding?
- A. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg
- B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
- C. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- D. Urine output of 30 mL per hour
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A low blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg is a significant finding indicating fluid volume deficit. In fluid volume deficit, the body tries to compensate by increasing heart rate (choice B) to maintain cardiac output. Respiratory rate (choice C) may increase as a compensatory mechanism, but it is not the primary concern in fluid volume deficit. Urine output (choice D) may decrease in response to fluid volume deficit, but it is a late sign and not the most concerning finding.
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A nurse is providing care to a primigravida whose membranes spontaneously ruptured (ROM) 4 hours ago. Labor is to be induced. At the time of the ROM the vital signs were T-99.8 degrees F, P-84, R-20, BP-130/78, and fetal heart tones (FHT) 148 beats/min. Which assessment findings taken now may be an early indication that the client is developing a complication of labor?
- A. FHT 168 beats/min
- B. Temperature 100 degrees Fahrenheit
- C. Cervical dilation of 4 cm
- D. BP 138/88
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Fetal heart rate elevation can indicate distress, making it an early sign of labor complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the best answers in this scenario. Choice B, an elevated temperature, could indicate infection but is not a direct sign of labor complications. Choice C, cervical dilation of 4 cm, is a normal part of labor progression for a primigravida. Choice D, a blood pressure of 138/88, falls within normal limits and is not an early indication of labor complications.
The nurse is caring for a client who requires a mechanical ventilator for breathing. The high-pressure alarm goes off on the ventilator. What is the first action the nurse should perform?
- A. Disconnect the client from the ventilator and use a manual resuscitation bag
- B. Perform a quick assessment of the client's condition
- C. Call the respiratory therapist for help
- D. Press the alarm reset button on the ventilator
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When the high-pressure alarm on a ventilator goes off, the nurse's initial action should be to perform a quick assessment of the client's condition. This assessment helps in promptly identifying the cause of the alarm, such as mucus plugging, kinking of the tubing, or other issues. By assessing the client first, the nurse can determine the appropriate intervention needed to address the alarm. Choices A and D are incorrect because disconnecting the client from the ventilator or pressing the alarm reset button should not be the initial actions without assessing the client's condition. While calling the respiratory therapist for help could be beneficial, assessing the client's condition should be the nurse's priority to address the immediate concern.
A nurse is caring for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should the nurse recommend to the client as an appropriate sweetener?
- A. Corn syrup
- B. Natural honey
- C. Nonnutritive sugar substitute
- D. Agave nectar
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nonnutritive sugar substitutes are suitable for individuals with diabetes, such as type 1 diabetes mellitus, as they do not affect blood glucose levels. Corn syrup and agave nectar contain high levels of sugar that can spike blood glucose levels, making them unsuitable for diabetes management. While natural honey is a natural sweetener, it can still impact blood sugar levels and is not the optimal choice for individuals with diabetes.
The parents of a child on phenytoin (Dilantin) have received discharge instructions from the nurse. Which of the following statements suggests that the teaching was effective?
- A. We will call the healthcare provider if the child develops acne.
- B. Our child should brush and floss carefully after every meal.
- C. We will skip the next dose if vomiting or fever occurs.
- D. When our child is seizure-free for 6 months, we can stop the medication.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Proper oral hygiene, including brushing and flossing carefully after every meal, is essential for children on phenytoin to prevent gingival hyperplasia, a common side effect. Choice A is incorrect because acne is not a common side effect of phenytoin and does not require immediate healthcare provider notification. Choice C is incorrect because vomiting or fever should not prompt skipping a dose without consulting the healthcare provider first. Choice D is incorrect because discontinuing phenytoin should never be done abruptly or without healthcare provider guidance, even if the child is seizure-free for 6 months.
The nurse is caring for a client post appendectomy. The client has developed a fever, and the incision site is red and swollen. Which of these assessments is a priority for the nurse to perform?
- A. Check the client's blood pressure
- B. Assess the client's pain level
- C. Inspect the incision site
- D. Monitor the client's respiratory status
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Inspecting the incision site is a priority in this situation because the redness and swelling indicate a potential infection. This assessment helps the nurse determine the extent of infection and the appropriate intervention, such as administering antibiotics or notifying the healthcare provider. Checking the client's blood pressure (Choice A) may be important but is not the priority in this scenario where signs of infection are present. Assessing the client's pain level (Choice B) is also important but addressing the infection takes precedence. Monitoring the client's respiratory status (Choice D) is essential but not the priority when dealing with a localized infection at the incision site.