When assessing a client for signs and symptoms of a fluid volume deficit, the nurse would be most concerned with which finding?
- A. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg
- B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
- C. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- D. Urine output of 30 mL per hour
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A low blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg is a significant finding indicating fluid volume deficit. In fluid volume deficit, the body tries to compensate by increasing heart rate (choice B) to maintain cardiac output. Respiratory rate (choice C) may increase as a compensatory mechanism, but it is not the primary concern in fluid volume deficit. Urine output (choice D) may decrease in response to fluid volume deficit, but it is a late sign and not the most concerning finding.
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A client has an indwelling catheter with continuous bladder irrigation after undergoing a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) 12 hours ago. Which finding at this time should be reported to the health care provider?
- A. Light pink urine
- B. Occasional suprapubic cramping
- C. Minimal drainage into the urinary collection bag
- D. Complaints of the feeling of pulling on the urinary catheter
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a client with an indwelling catheter and continuous bladder irrigation post TURP, minimal drainage into the urinary collection bag should be reported to the health care provider. This finding could indicate a blockage in the catheter or a complication that requires immediate attention. Light pink urine (choice A) is expected due to bladder irrigation. Occasional suprapubic cramping (choice B) is common post-TURP. Complaints of the feeling of pulling on the urinary catheter (choice D) may indicate discomfort but do not suggest an urgent issue like a potential blockage.
A nurse is providing care to a primigravida whose membranes spontaneously ruptured (ROM) 4 hours ago. Labor is to be induced. At the time of the ROM the vital signs were T-99.8 degrees F, P-84, R-20, BP-130/78, and fetal heart tones (FHT) 148 beats/min. Which assessment findings taken now may be an early indication that the client is developing a complication of labor?
- A. FHT 168 beats/min
- B. Temperature 100 degrees Fahrenheit
- C. Cervical dilation of 4 cm
- D. BP 138/88
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Fetal heart rate elevation can indicate distress, making it an early sign of labor complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the best answers in this scenario. Choice B, an elevated temperature, could indicate infection but is not a direct sign of labor complications. Choice C, cervical dilation of 4 cm, is a normal part of labor progression for a primigravida. Choice D, a blood pressure of 138/88, falls within normal limits and is not an early indication of labor complications.
A healthcare professional assesses a young adult in the emergency room following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following neurological signs is of most concern?
- A. Flaccid paralysis
- B. Pupils fixed and dilated
- C. Diminished spinal reflexes
- D. Reduced sensory responses
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pupils fixed and dilated. Fixed and dilated pupils are a critical neurological sign that indicates severe neurological damage or brain herniation, posing a significant concern for the patient's condition. Flaccid paralysis (choice A) typically indicates lower motor neuron injury, while diminished spinal reflexes (choice C) and reduced sensory responses (choice D) may suggest various neurological issues but are not as acutely concerning as fixed and dilated pupils in this scenario.
During the care of a client with a salmonella infection, what is the primary nursing intervention to limit transmission?
- A. Wash hands thoroughly before and after client contact
- B. Wear gloves when in contact with body secretions
- C. Double glove when in contact with feces or vomitus
- D. Wear gloves when disposing of contaminated linens
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to wash hands thoroughly before and after client contact when caring for a client with a salmonella infection. This approach is crucial in preventing the transmission of the infection. While wearing gloves when in contact with body secretions (Choice B), double gloving when in contact with feces or vomitus (Choice C), and wearing gloves when disposing of contaminated linens (Choice D) are important infection control measures, the primary intervention to limit the spread of salmonella is proper hand hygiene.
A nurse is reinforcing nutrition teaching with a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following food selections should the nurse recommend to increase calcium in the client's diet?
- A. 1 medium apple
- B. 3 oz of lean beef
- C. 1 tbsp of cream cheese
- D. 1 cup of kale
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 1 cup of kale. Kale is rich in calcium, making it a suitable choice to increase calcium intake for individuals with osteoporosis. While fruits like apples (choice A) are nutritious, they are not high in calcium. Lean beef (choice B) is a good source of protein but not a significant source of calcium. Cream cheese (choice C) is also not a primary source of calcium compared to kale.
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