When assessing patient with nutritional needs, which patients will require follow-up from the nurse?(Select all that apply.)
- A. A patient with infection taking tetracycline with milk
- B. A patient with irritable bowel syndrome increasing fiber
- C. A patient with diverticulitis following a high-fiber diet daily
- D. A patient with an enteral feeding and 500 mL of gastric residual
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A patient with infection taking tetracycline with milk. This is because tetracycline binds with the calcium in milk, reducing its absorption and effectiveness. The nurse should follow up to ensure the patient is not compromising the treatment.
Choices B and C are incorrect because increasing fiber for irritable bowel syndrome and following a high-fiber diet for diverticulitis are appropriate interventions that do not require immediate follow-up.
Choice D is incorrect because it is a routine part of managing enteral feedings to monitor gastric residuals, and does not necessarily require immediate follow-up unless there are specific concerns.
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Which finding on a prenatal visit at 10 weeks might suggest a hydatidiform mole?
- A. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
- B. Complaint of frequent mild nausea
- C. Fundal height measurement of 18 cm
- D. History of bright red spotting for 1 day weeks ago
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fundal height measurement of 18 cm. This finding suggests a hydatidiform mole because it is larger than expected for a 10-week pregnancy due to excessive trophoblastic proliferation. A: Blood pressure is within normal range. B: Nausea is common in early pregnancy and not specific to a mole. D: History of bright red spotting is more indicative of a miscarriage or other complications, not necessarily a mole.
A patient has been diagnosed with AIDS complicated by chronic diarrhea. What nursing intervention would be appropriate for this patient?
- A. Position the patient in the high Fowlers position whenever possible.
- B. Temporarily eliminate animal protein from the patients diet.
- C. Make sure the patient eats at least two servings of raw fruit each day.
- D. Obtain a stool culture to identify possible pathogens.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Obtain a stool culture to identify possible pathogens. This is the most appropriate nursing intervention because chronic diarrhea in a patient with AIDS can be caused by various pathogens such as parasites, bacteria, or viruses. By obtaining a stool culture, the healthcare team can identify the specific pathogen responsible for the diarrhea and initiate targeted treatment.
A: Positioning the patient in the high Fowler's position is not directly related to addressing the underlying cause of chronic diarrhea in this patient.
B: Temporarily eliminating animal protein from the patient's diet may not be necessary or effective in treating chronic diarrhea without knowing the specific cause identified through stool culture.
C: Making sure the patient eats raw fruit is not recommended as raw fruits can sometimes worsen diarrhea due to their high fiber content and potential for carrying pathogens.
In summary, obtaining a stool culture is the most appropriate intervention as it helps identify the specific pathogen causing the diarrhea, while the other options do not directly address the underlying cause.
The nurse is teaching breast self-examination (BSE) to a group of women. The nurse should recommend that the women perform BSE at what time?
- A. At the time of menses
- B. At any convenient time, regardless of cycles
- C. Weekly
- D. Between days 5 and 7 after menses
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: At the time of menses. This is because breasts are less lumpy and tender during this time, making it easier to detect abnormalities. Performing BSE at other times may lead to false alarms due to hormonal changes. Choice B is incorrect because timing matters for accurate results. Choice C is incorrect as weekly BSE is unnecessary and may cause unnecessary anxiety. Choice D is incorrect as breasts are more lumpy and tender post-menses, potentially making it harder to detect abnormalities.
A patient has just returned to the surgical floor after undergoing a retinal detachment repair. The postoperative orders specify that the patient should be kept in a prone position until otherwise ordered. What should the nurse do?
- A. Call the physician and ask for the order to be confirmed.
- B. Follow the order because this position will help keep the retinal repair intact.
- C. Instruct the patient to maintain this position to prevent bleeding.
- D. Reposition the patient after the first dressing change.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
1. Prone position post retinal detachment repair helps the gas bubble or silicone oil stay against the retina to support healing.
2. This position prevents the bubble/oil from moving and causing further detachment.
3. Repositioning can jeopardize the surgical repair and lead to complications.
4. Calling the physician (A) is unnecessary as the order is clear.
5. Instructing the patient to prevent bleeding (C) is not related to the positioning after retinal detachment repair.
6. Repositioning after the first dressing change (D) contradicts the initial order and risks complications.
A patient diagnosed with Bells palsy is having decreased sensitivity to touch of the involved nerve. What should the nurse recommend to prevent atrophy of the muscles?
- A. Blowing up balloons
- B. Deliberately frowning
- C. Smiling repeatedly
- D. Whistling
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blowing up balloons. Blowing up balloons involves the activation of the facial muscles, which helps prevent muscle atrophy in patients with Bell's palsy. This exercise promotes muscle strength and prevents weakness. Deliberately frowning (B), smiling repeatedly (C), and whistling (D) do not specifically target the facial muscles involved in Bell's palsy and may not be as effective in preventing muscle atrophy.
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