Nokea
When assessing the integumentary system of a client with anorexia nervosa, which finding would support the diagnosis?
- A. Preoccupation with calories
- B. Thick body hair
- C. Sore tongue
- D. Dry, brittle hair
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dry, brittle hair. Dry, brittle hair is a common sign of malnutrition, often seen in clients with anorexia nervosa. Preoccupation with calories (choice A) is more related to the psychological aspect of anorexia rather than a physical finding. Thick body hair (choice B) is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa. A sore tongue (choice C) can be seen in conditions like vitamin deficiencies or oral health issues but is not specific to anorexia nervosa.
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When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, what should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Elevated blood glucose
- B. Decreased blood pressure
- C. Signs of bleeding
- D. Increased appetite
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants work by inhibiting the blood's ability to clot, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as easy bruising, petechiae, hematuria, or bleeding gums is crucial to prevent complications. Elevated blood glucose (Choice A) is not directly related to oral anticoagulant use. Decreased blood pressure (Choice B) is not a common effect of oral anticoagulants. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not a typical side effect of oral anticoagulants and is not a primary concern when monitoring a patient on this medication.
The nurse is caring for a client in a sickle cell crisis. Which is the pain regimen of choice to relieve the pain?
- A. Frequent aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and a non-narcotic analgesic
- B. Motrin (ibuprofen), an NSAID, PRN
- C. Demerol (meperidine), a narcotic analgesic, every four (4) hours
- D. Morphine, a narcotic analgesic, every two (2) to three (3) hours PRN
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Which of the following grains is acceptable for someone with celiac disease?
- A. Rice
- B. Rye
- C. Wheat
- D. Barley
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A client who is postpartum and has been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia is receiving education from a nurse. Which dietary recommendation should be included in the education plan?
- A. Yogurt and mozzarella
- B. Spinach and beef
- C. Fish and cottage cheese
- D. Turkey slices and milk
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Spinach and beef.' Spinach and beef are high in iron, which is crucial for treating iron deficiency anemia. Spinach is a good source of non-heme iron, while beef provides heme iron, making them effective choices to increase iron levels in the body. Yogurt and mozzarella (Choice A), fish and cottage cheese (Choice C), and turkey slices and milk (Choice D) do not contain as high iron content as spinach and beef, making them less effective in addressing iron deficiency anemia.
A patient with hypothyroidism should be advised to consume more of which nutrient?
- A. Calcium
- B. Iodine
- C. Vitamin C
- D. Iron
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Iodine. Iodine is crucial for the production of thyroid hormones. A deficiency in iodine can lead to hypothyroidism. Calcium (Choice A) is important for bone health but is not directly related to thyroid function. Vitamin C (Choice C) is essential for the immune system and skin health but does not play a significant role in thyroid function. Iron (Choice D) is vital for red blood cell production and oxygen transport but is not specifically relevant to hypothyroidism.