Nokea
When assessing venous disease in a patients lower extremities, the nurse knows that what test will most likely be ordered?
- A. Duplex ultrasonography
- B. Echocardiography
- C. Positron emission tomography (PET)
- D. Radiography
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Duplex ultrasound may be used to determine the level and extent of venous disease as well as its chronicity. Radiographs (x-rays), PET scanning, and echocardiography are never used for this purpose as they do not allow visualization of blood flow.
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The nurse is caring for a patient with a large venous leg ulcer. What intervention should the nurse implement to promote healing and prevent infection?
- A. Provide a high-calorie, high-protein diet.
- B. Apply a clean occlusive dressing once daily and whenever soiled.
- C. Irrigate the wound with hydrogen peroxide once daily.
- D. Apply an antibiotic ointment on the surrounding skin with each dressing change.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Wound healing is highly dependent on adequate nutrition. The diet should be sufficiently high in calories and protein. Antibiotic ointments are not normally used on the skin surrounding a leg ulcer and occlusive dressings can exacerbate impaired blood flow. Hydrogen peroxide is not normally used because it can damage granulation tissue.
The nurse is caring for an acutely ill patient who is on anticoagulant therapy. The patient has a comorbidity of renal insufficiency. How will this patients renal status affect heparin therapy?
- A. Heparin is contraindicated in the treatment of this patient.
- B. Heparin may be administered subcutaneously, but not IV.
- C. Lower doses of heparin are required for this patient.
- D. Coumadin will be substituted for heparin.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: If renal insufficiency exists, lower doses of heparin are required. Coumadin cannot be safely and effectively used as a substitute and there is no contraindication for IV administration.
A nurse in a long-term care facility is caring for an 83-year-old woman who has a history of HF and peripheral arterial disease (PAD). At present the patient is unable to stand or ambulate. The nurse should implement measures to prevent what complication?
- A. Aoritis
- B. Deep vein thrombosis
- C. Thoracic aortic aneurysm
- D. Raynauds disease
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Although the exact cause of venous thrombosis remains unclear, three factors, known as Virchows triad, are believed to play a significant role in its development: stasis of blood (venous stasis), vessel wall injury, and altered blood coagulation. In this womans case, she has venous stasis from immobility, vessel wall injury from PAD, and altered blood coagulation from HF. The cause of aoritis is unknown, but it has no direct connection to HF, PAD, or mobility issues. The greatest risk factors for thoracic aortic aneurysm are atherosclerosis and hypertension; there is no direct connection to HF, PAD, or mobility issues. Raynauds disease is a disorder that involves spasms of blood vessels and, again, no direct connection to HF, PAD, or mobility issues.
The triage nurse in the ED is assessing a patient who has presented with complaint of pain and swelling in her right lower leg. The patients pain became much worse last night and appeared along with fever, chills, and sweating. The patient states, I hit my leg on the car door 4 or 5 days ago and it has been sore ever since. The patient has a history of chronic venous insufficiency. What intervention should the nurse anticipate for this patient?
- A. Platelet transfusion to treat thrombocytopenia
- B. Warfarin to treat arterial insufficiency
- C. Antibiotics to treat cellulitis
- D. Heparin IV to treat VTE
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cellulitis is the most common infectious cause of limb swelling. The signs and symptoms include acute onset of swelling, localized redness, and pain; it is frequently associated with systemic signs of fever, chills, and sweating. The patient may be able to identify a trauma that accounts for the source of infection. Thrombocytopenia is a loss or decrease in platelets and increases a patients risk of bleeding; this problem would not cause these symptoms. Arterial insufficiency would present with ongoing pain related to activity. This patient does not have signs and symptoms of VTE.
The nurse is admitting a 32-year-old woman to the presurgical unit. The nurse learns during the admission assessment that the patient takes oral contraceptives. Consequently, the nurses postoperative plan of care should include what intervention?
- A. Early ambulation and leg exercises
- B. Cessation of the oral contraceptives until 3 weeks postoperative
- C. Doppler ultrasound of peripheral circulation twice daily
- D. Dependent positioning of the patients extremities when at rest
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Oral contraceptive use increases blood coagulability; with bed rest, the patient may be at increased risk of developing deep vein thrombosis. Leg exercises and early ambulation are among the interventions that address this risk. Assessment of peripheral circulation is important, but Doppler ultrasound may not be necessary to obtain these data. Dependent positioning increases the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE). Contraceptives are not normally discontinued to address the risk of VTE in the short term.