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When calculating the Apgar score of a newborn at 1 minute after delivery, which of the following findings would result in a score of 6?
- A. 4
- B. 5
- C. 6
- D. 7
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Apgar score assesses the newborn's overall condition at birth based on five criteria: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. A score of 6 at 1 minute indicates moderate difficulty in transitioning to extrauterine life. For a score of 6, the baby may have a heart rate below 100 bpm, weak respiratory effort, some muscle tone, grimacing reflex irritability, and a body with bluish extremities but normal body color. Choice C aligns with these criteria. Choices A, B, and D do not meet the requirements for a score of 6 as they represent either too low or too high values in one or more criteria, resulting in a different Apgar score.
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While assisting with the care of an infant with a high bilirubin level receiving phototherapy, which finding should the nurse prioritize for reporting to the charge nurse?
- A. Conjunctivitis
- B. Bronze skin discoloration
- C. Sunken fontanels
- D. Maculopapular skin rash
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sunken fontanels. This finding indicates dehydration in the infant, which can be a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. Dehydration can lead to further elevation of bilirubin levels and potential neurological complications. Reporting this to the charge nurse is crucial for prompt assessment and intervention.
Incorrect choices:
A: Conjunctivitis - Although important, it is not a priority over a sign of dehydration.
B: Bronze skin discoloration - This may be a common side effect of phototherapy and does not indicate an urgent issue.
D: Maculopapular skin rash - While it should be monitored, it does not take precedence over a sign of dehydration.
A client who is breastfeeding and has mastitis is receiving teaching from the nurse. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Limit the amount of time the infant nurses on each breast.
- B. Nurse the infant only on the unaffected breast until resolved.
- C. Completely empty each breast at each feeding or use a pump.
- D. Wear a tight-fitting bra until lactation has ceased.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Completely empty each breast at each feeding or use a pump. This is the correct response because it helps to ensure effective milk removal, which is crucial for treating mastitis. By fully emptying the breast, the nurse can prevent milk stasis and promote healing.
A: Limiting the time the infant nurses on each breast may lead to incomplete milk removal, worsening the condition.
B: Nursing only on the unaffected breast does not address the issue of milk stasis in the affected breast and may lead to further complications.
D: Wearing a tight-fitting bra can exacerbate mastitis by restricting milk flow and increasing discomfort.
A client is being discharged after childbirth. At 4 weeks postpartum, the client should contact the provider for which of the following client findings?
- A. Scant, non-odorous white vaginal discharge
- B. Uterine cramping during breastfeeding
- C. Sore nipple with cracks and fissures
- D. Decreased response with sexual activity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sore nipple with cracks and fissures. This is indicative of possible breastfeeding issues like improper latch or infection, requiring prompt intervention to prevent complications. Scant, non-odorous white vaginal discharge (A) is normal postpartum lochia. Uterine cramping during breastfeeding (B) is common due to oxytocin release. Decreased response with sexual activity (D) is a common postpartum concern but not an urgent issue at 4 weeks. Addressing sore nipples promptly is crucial for successful breastfeeding and maternal well-being.
During Leopold maneuvers on a client in labor, which technique should be used by the nurse to identify the fetal lie?
- A. Apply palms of both hands to sides of the uterus
- B. Palpate the fundus of the uterus
- C. Grasp the lower uterine segment between thumb and fingers
- D. Stand facing the client's feet with fingertips outlining cephalic prominence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is option B: Palpate the fundus of the uterus. This technique helps the nurse identify the fetal lie by feeling for the position of the baby's head or buttocks at the top of the uterus. By palpating the fundus, the nurse can determine whether the baby is in a vertex (head down) or breech (head up) position. This method is effective in assessing the fetal lie as it provides direct information about the baby's orientation within the uterus.
Option A is incorrect because applying palms to the sides of the uterus does not specifically help identify the fetal lie. Option C is incorrect as grasping the lower uterine segment does not provide information on the fetal lie. Option D is incorrect because standing facing the client's feet with fingertips outlining cephalic prominence is not a technique used to determine fetal lie.
A client at 11 weeks of gestation reports slight occasional vaginal bleeding over the past 2 weeks. After an examination, the provider informs the client that the fetus has died, and the placenta, fetus, and tissues remain in the uterus. How should the nurse document these findings?
- A. Incomplete miscarriage
- B. Missed miscarriage
- C. Inevitable miscarriage
- D. Complete miscarriage
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Missed miscarriage. At 11 weeks gestation, the fetus has died but has not been expelled from the uterus. This is known as a missed miscarriage. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Incomplete miscarriage involves partial expulsion of the products of conception.
C: Inevitable miscarriage indicates that the miscarriage is in progress and cannot be stopped.
D: Complete miscarriage refers to the complete expulsion of all products of conception from the uterus.