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When caring for a client who has overdosed on PCP, the nurse should be especially cautious about which of the following client behaviors?
- A. Visual hallucinations
- B. Violent behavior
- C. Bizarre behavior
- D. Loud screaming
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Violent behavior.' When a client has overdosed on PCP, the nurse should be particularly cautious about the manifestation of violent behavior. PCP overdose can lead to aggressive and unpredictable actions, posing a significant risk to both the client and healthcare providers. Visual hallucinations (choice A), bizarre behavior (choice C), and loud screaming (choice D) can also occur with PCP overdose, but the primary concern should be the potential for violent behavior, making it the most critical behavior to monitor and manage.
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Which action should the nurse implement first for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal?
- A. Apply vest or extremity restraints.
- B. Give an alpha-adrenergic blocker.
- C. Provide a diet high in protein and calories.
- D. Prepare the environment to prevent self-injury.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is to prepare the environment to prevent self-injury. Clients undergoing alcohol withdrawal are at risk of seizures and other symptoms that may lead to self-harm. By ensuring a safe environment, the nurse can mitigate the risk of injury. Applying restraints (Choice A) should only be considered if less restrictive measures fail, as restraints can agitate the client further. Giving an alpha-adrenergic blocker (Choice B) may be part of the treatment plan for alcohol withdrawal but is not the first action to take. Providing a diet high in protein and calories (Choice C) is important for overall health but is not the priority when addressing immediate safety concerns.
A client with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine (Zyprexa). What is the most important side effect for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Weight gain
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Tachycardia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight gain. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) is known to cause significant weight gain in patients. This side effect is crucial to monitor because it can lead to metabolic syndrome, diabetes, and cardiovascular issues. Monitoring the client's weight regularly and providing appropriate dietary guidance is essential. Hypotension (choice A), dry mouth (choice C), and tachycardia (choice D) are not commonly associated with olanzapine use and are not the primary side effects to monitor in this case.
On admission assessment, the nurse is obtaining subjective data about a client's sexual and reproductive status. The client states, 'I don't want to discuss this; it's private and personal.' Which response by the LVN/LPN is the most therapeutic?
- A. I'd hate being asked these sorts of questions too, but it's a necessary part of providing you with the best care.
- B. This is difficult for you to speak about, but I need this information from you in order to perform a complete assessment.
- C. I am a professional registered nurse, and, as such, I'll have you know that all your information is certainly kept confidential.
- D. I know that some of these questions are difficult for you, but, as a professional nurse, I am obligated to respect your confidentiality.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is D. Respecting the client's privacy while acknowledging the difficulty of the situation and explaining the professional obligation to maintain confidentiality is the most therapeutic approach. This response shows empathy, understanding, and a commitment to confidentiality, which can help build trust and encourage the client to open up. Choices A, B, and C do not effectively address the client's concerns or emphasize the importance of confidentiality in a sensitive manner, making them less therapeutic responses in this situation.
A client is preparing to attend a Gamblers Anonymous meeting for the first time. The prototype used by this group is the 12-step program developed by Alcoholics Anonymous. Number in order of priority how the steps would be addressed.
- A. Admitting to oneself and to another human being the exact nature of one's wrongs
- B. Acknowledging that one is entirely ready to have his or her defects of character removed
- C. Admitting that oneself is powerless over gambling and that one's life has become unmanageable
- D. Making an effort to practice the 12-step principles in all affairs, and to carry out this message to other compulsive gamblers
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct order of addressing the 12-step program typically begins with admitting powerlessness over the addiction and recognizing the unmanageability of one's life (Choice C). Following this, individuals move towards acknowledging their wrongs and sharing them with others (Choice A), then being ready to work on changing their character defects (Choice B), and finally, integrating the 12-step principles into their daily lives and helping others (Choice D). Choices A, B, and C are important steps in the program but come after admitting powerlessness and unmanageability, which is why Choice D is the correct answer.
A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?
- A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor closely.
- B. Immediately transfer the client to the ICU.
- C. Report the symptoms to the charge nurse and document in the client's chart.
- D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such medications.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.