Nokea
When caring for a client with a possible diagnosis of placenta previa, which of the following admission procedures should the nurse omit?
- A. perineal shave
- B. enema
- C. urine specimen collection
- D. blood specimen collection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An enema risks dislodging the placenta in placenta previa, potentially causing severe bleeding, and should be avoided.
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The nurse is assessing the newborn's respirations. Which of these findings would indicate a need for follow-up and further intervention?
- A. irregular respirations
- B. abdominal respirations
- C. shallow respirations
- D. 70 breaths per minute
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The respirations in a newborn are usually irregular, abdominal, and shallow. However, the ideal respiratory rate in a newborn is 30-60 breaths per minute. A respiratory rate of 70 breaths per minute indicates tachypnea and may require intervention. The other answer choices do not necessarily indicate the need for follow-up.
The client is to receive a first dose of oral sulfamethoxazole 1 g every 12 hours for treatment of recurrent UTIs. Which information about the client should prompt the nurse to question the medication order?
- A. History of gastric ulcer
- B. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
- C. Urine positive for Escherichia coli
- D. Near-term pregnancy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A: History of gastric ulcer is not a contraindication for the use of sulfamethoxazole. B: Type 1 diabetes does not prevent the use of sulfamethoxazole. C: A positive urine culture would be an indication for using sulfamethoxazole. D: Sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra), a sulfonamide antibiotic, is a category D medication for near-term pregnancy. This means there is positive evidence of human fetal risk, but the benefits from use in pregnant women may be acceptable despite the risk (e.g., for a life-threatening illness or a serious disease for which safer medications cannot be used or are ineffective).
The client has an order for 0.45 mg Diltiazem. The medication vial has a concentration of 3 mg/mL. How many mL of the drug should be administered?
- A. 0.15 mL
- B. 6.6 mL
- C. 1.5 mL
- D. 0.65 mL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct calculation is 0.45 / 3 which equals 0.15 mL.
The client with MS is prescribed baclofen. Which information is most important for the nurse to evaluate when caring for this client?
- A. Serum baclofen levels
- B. Muscle rigidity and pain
- C. Intake and urine output
- D. Daily weight pattern
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A: There is no serum baclofen level. B: Baclofen (Lioresal) is used primarily to treat spasticity in MS and spinal cord injuries. The nurse should assess for muscle rigidity, movement, and pain to evaluate medication effectiveness. C: Although baclofen can cause urinary urgency, this is not the most important information. D: Baclofen use is not associated with weight.
The 9-year-old with SLE is receiving large doses of prednisolone. Which laboratory finding should the nurse recognize as an untoward effect of the medication?
- A. Total bilirubin of 4 mg/dL
- B. WBC count of 18,000/mm3
- C. Serum sodium of 130 mEq/L
- D. Random glucose of 130 mg/dL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A: The liver is not affected by prednisolone use, so an increased total bilirubin of 4 mg/dL is not related to the use of the drug. Normal total bilirubin in a 9-year-old should be less than 2 mg/dL. B: A WBC count of 18,000/mm3 may indicate an infection, an untoward effect of prednisolone (Omnipred). Prednisolone, a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation, may increase the risk of infection. The normal WBC in a 9-year-old is 4500-11,100/mm3. C: Prednisolone has been associated with the adverse effect of hypokalemia, but not hyponatremia. Normal serum sodium is 135-145 mEq/L. D: Although corticosteroids may have the effect of increasing blood glucose, a random glucose of 130 mg/dL is not abnormal.