When caring for a patient with AIDS, which of the following nursing actions would be the most appropriate for infection control?
- A. Wear gloves at all times
- B. Wear gown and mask at all times
- C. Wear gloves for blood/body fluid contact
- D. Wear a mask during patient contact times
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Wear gloves for blood/body fluid contact. This is the most appropriate action for infection control when caring for a patient with AIDS because HIV is primarily transmitted through blood and certain body fluids. Wearing gloves when coming into contact with blood or body fluids reduces the risk of transmission.
Explanation for why other choices are incorrect:
A: Wearing gloves at all times may not be necessary and can lead to unnecessary waste of resources.
B: Wearing gown and mask at all times is excessive and not indicated unless there is a risk of exposure to blood or body fluids.
D: Wearing a mask during patient contact times is not necessary unless there is a risk of exposure to respiratory secretions.
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The nurse is reviewing a patient’s plan of care, which includes the nursing diagnostic statement, Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient’s inability to ambulate. Which part of the diagnostic statement does the nurse need to revise?
- A. Etiology
- B. Nursing diagnosis
- C. Collaborative problem
- D. Defining characteristic
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Collaborative problem. In the given diagnostic statement, "Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient’s inability to ambulate," the nurse needs to revise the mention of collaborative problem. The collaborative problem is a health issue that requires the expertise of multiple healthcare providers, whereas the statement provided focuses on a nursing diagnosis related to physical mobility impairment. The etiology (cause), nursing diagnosis, and defining characteristic are all relevant to the nursing diagnostic statement and do not need revision. The collaborative problem aspect is not appropriate in this context as it does not fit the criteria for a collaborative problem.
A surgical intervention that can cause substantial remission of myasthenia gravis is:
- A. Esophagostomy
- B. Thymectomy
- C. Myomectomy
- D. Spleenectomy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thymectomy. Thymectomy involves the surgical removal of the thymus gland, which is often abnormal in individuals with myasthenia gravis. The thymus plays a role in the development of the immune system and can contribute to the autoimmune response seen in myasthenia gravis. By removing the thymus gland, the autoimmune response may be reduced, leading to substantial remission of symptoms.
Choice A, Esophagostomy, involves creating a surgical opening into the esophagus and is not a treatment for myasthenia gravis. Choice C, Myomectomy, is the surgical removal of uterine fibroids and is unrelated to myasthenia gravis. Choice D, Spleenectomy, is the removal of the spleen and is not a standard treatment for myasthenia gravis.
Which food should be avoided by the patient on a low-sodium diet?
- A. Apples
- B. Chicken
- C. Cheese
- D. Broccoli
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cheese. Cheese is high in sodium and should be avoided on a low-sodium diet. Sodium can contribute to high blood pressure and other health issues. Apples, chicken, and broccoli are all low in sodium and can be included in a low-sodium diet. Cheese is the only option that is high in sodium, making it the correct choice to avoid.
A nurse needs to assess a client who is undergoing urinary diversion. Which of the ff assessment is essential for the client?
- A. The client’s knowledge about the effects of the surgery on his sexual function
- B. The clients medical history of allergy to iodine or seafood
- C. The clients knowledge about the effects of the surgery on his nervous control
- D. The clients occupational and environmental health hazards
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a client's medical history of allergy to iodine or seafood is crucial for urinary diversion assessment to prevent potential adverse reactions during procedures involving contrast media or seafood-based medications. It is essential to ensure the client's safety and avoid any allergic reactions.
Choice A is incorrect because assessing sexual function is not directly related to urinary diversion assessment. Choice C is also incorrect as urinary diversion does not typically affect nervous control. Choice D is irrelevant to the assessment of a client undergoing urinary diversion.
When the LPN is assisting the patient to use an incentive spirometer, which of the following actions by the patient indicates that the patient needs further teaching on how to use the spirometer?
- A. Taking two normal breaths before use.
- B. Sitting upright before use.
- C. Inhaling deeply to reach target.
- D. Exhaling deeply to reach target.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because exhaling deeply before using the spirometer is incorrect. The purpose of the incentive spirometer is to encourage deep inhalation to improve lung function. Exhaling deeply before using the spirometer goes against this goal and may hinder the effectiveness of the device. Choices A, B, and C are all correct actions when using the spirometer. Taking two normal breaths helps to prepare the lungs, sitting upright optimizes lung expansion, and inhaling deeply to reach the target helps to improve lung ventilation.