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When caring for a patient with latex allergy, the healthcare provider creates a latex-safe environment by doing which of the following?
- A. Carefully cleaning the wall-mounted blood pressure device before using it.
- B. Donning latex gloves outside the room to limit powder dispersal.
- C. Using a latex-free pharmacy protocol.
- D. Placing the patient in a semi-private room.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Creating a latex-safe environment for a patient with latex allergy is crucial to prevent allergic reactions. Using a latex-free pharmacy protocol is essential as it ensures that medications and supplies provided to the patient are free of latex components. Cleaning a wall-mounted blood pressure device may not be sufficient as the device itself may contain latex parts that can trigger an allergic reaction. Donning latex gloves, even outside the room, is not recommended as powder dispersal can cause issues; only non-latex gloves should be used in a latex-safe environment. Placing the patient in a semi-private room does not directly address the need to eliminate latex exposure from medical supplies and equipment, which is better achieved through a latex-free pharmacy protocol.
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The nurse informs the physical therapy department that the client is too weak to use a walker and needs to be transported by wheelchair. Which step of the nursing process is the nurse engaged in at this time?
- A. Assessment
- B. Planning
- C. Implementation
- D. Evaluation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse is responsible for coordinating the plan of care with other disciplines to ensure the client's safety. This action represents the implementation phase of the nursing process. During the implementation phase, the nurse puts the care plan into action, which includes coordinating with other healthcare team members like the physical therapy department. Assessment involves data gathering, planning involves goal setting, and evaluation involves determining the attainment of client goals.
After instructing the client on crutch walking technique, the nurse should evaluate the client's understanding by using which of the following methods?
- A. Return demonstration
- B. Explanation
- C. Achievement of 90 on written test
- D. Have the client explain the procedure to the family
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: After teaching the client on crutch walking technique, assessing the client's understanding is crucial. The most effective method to evaluate the client's comprehension of a hands-on skill like crutch walking technique is through a return demonstration. This allows the nurse to observe the client performing the technique, ensuring they have grasped the instructions correctly and can execute the skill safely. While providing an explanation can help clarify doubts, it may not confirm the client's ability to perform the skill. Achieving a high score on a written test assesses cognitive understanding but not necessarily the practical application of the skill. Having the client explain the procedure to the family does not directly assess their ability to perform the skill themselves; it tests their ability to communicate the information to others.
Which of the following items of subjective client data would be documented in the medical record by the nurse?
- A. Client's face is pale
- B. Cervical lymph nodes are palpable
- C. Nursing assistant reports client refused lunch
- D. Client feels nauseated
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Client feels nauseated.' Subjective data refers to the client's sensations, feelings, and perception of their health status. It can only be reported by the client as it is based on their personal experiences. The feeling of nausea is a subjective symptom that the client experiences and can provide insight into their health condition. Choices A and B represent objective data, as they describe observable or measurable findings that can be detected by the nurse. Choice C involves information reported by someone other than the client, making it indirect and not purely subjective.
Which of the following is recommended by Joint Commission guidelines regarding the use of restraints?
- A. Vest restraints should be used because they are the least restrictive type.
- B. Restraints should be used for 48 hours in non-psychiatric patients.
- C. Restraints should be applied to prevent wandering behavior.
- D. Alternative measures must be attempted first.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When considering the use of restraints, Joint Commission guidelines emphasize the importance of attempting alternative measures before resorting to restraint application. This ensures that a comprehensive assessment is conducted and less restrictive interventions are explored. Using restraints solely based on their perceived level of restrictiveness, as stated in choice A, is not in line with the recommended approach. Restraints should not be used to manage wandering behavior, as indicated in choice C. Additionally, the statement in choice B regarding the duration of restraint use is inaccurate, as restraints on non-psychiatric patients should not exceed 24 hours according to The Joint Commission.
The client is a chronic carrier of infection. To prevent the spread of the infection to other clients or healthcare providers, the nurse emphasizes interventions that do which of the following? (Berman & Snyder, 2012, p. 713)
- A. Eliminate the reservoir
- B. Block the portal of exit from the reservoir
- C. Block the portal of entry into the host
- D. Decrease the susceptibility of the host
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To prevent the spread of infection from a chronic carrier, the nurse should focus on blocking the portal of exit from the reservoir, which is the carrier person. By preventing the movement of the organism from the reservoir, the infection can be contained. Eliminating the reservoir is not feasible in this case as the carrier is a chronic carrier. Blocking the portal of entry into the host or decreasing the susceptibility of the host would only impact individual prevention and not the spread from the carrier to others.