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When communicating with a client who has a complaint, what principle is important to keep in mind?
- A. Supervisors should always be involved.
- B. The client's physician is often the cause of the problem.
- C. Avoid discussion of complaints.
- D. Clients and families should be treated with respect; communication should be open and honest.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. It is important to treat clients and families with respect, practicing open and honest communication. This fosters trust, helps address concerns, and improves client satisfaction. Choice A is incorrect as involving supervisors may not always be necessary. Choice B is incorrect as the physician may not always be the cause of the problem. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding discussion can lead to unresolved issues. In summary, choice D promotes a positive and effective client-provider relationship, while the other choices do not address the core principles of effective communication and client-centered care.
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A client is admitted to a medical-surgical unit after six hours in the emergency room. He requests that his AM care be delayed to allow him to rest. The nurse complies with his request. This is an example of which type of management philosophy?
- A. Continuous quality improvement
- B. Total quality management
- C. Six Sigma
- D. Quality management
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Total quality management. This approach focuses on meeting customer needs and continuous improvement. By allowing the client to rest, the nurse is prioritizing the client's comfort and well-being, which aligns with the principles of total quality management. Continuous quality improvement (A) focuses on incremental improvements, Six Sigma (C) aims to reduce defects, and Quality management (D) is a broader term that encompasses various quality approaches.
A nurse is caring for a client after knee replacement surgery. The nurse discovers that the consent was not signed before the surgery. Which of the following charges could be filed?
- A. False imprisonment
- B. Libel
- C. Battery
- D. Malpractice
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Battery. In this scenario, performing surgery without obtaining consent constitutes battery, which is the intentional touching of another person without consent. It is a violation of the client's right to autonomy and self-determination. False imprisonment (A) involves restraining someone without justification. Libel (B) is a written defamation of character, and malpractice (D) refers to professional negligence in providing healthcare services. Battery is the most appropriate charge in this situation as it directly addresses the lack of consent for the surgery.
A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?
- A. 0.40 FTEs
- B. 17.0 FTEs
- C. 0.05 FTEs
- D. 1.0 FTEs
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To determine the FTEs needed, divide the total benefit hours by the standard annual benefit hours for a full-time employee. In this case, 832 benefit hours / 2080 standard annual benefit hours = 0.4 FTEs (Choice A). This is because an FTE represents the hours worked by one full-time employee in a year.
Choice B (17.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it is significantly higher than the calculated 0.4 FTEs. Choice C (0.05 FTEs) is too low and does not accurately reflect the number of FTEs needed for 832 benefit hours. Choice D (1.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it assumes that 832 benefit hours equal the standard annual benefit hours for one full-time employee, which is not the case here.
Which of the following is a common characteristic of a high reliability organization (HRO)?
- A. Flexibility
- B. Reluctance to simplify
- C. Preoccupation with failure
- D. Deference to expertise
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Preoccupation with failure. High reliability organizations (HROs) prioritize identifying and addressing potential failures to prevent catastrophic events. This focus on failure helps them anticipate, detect, and respond to risks effectively. A: Flexibility may be important but not a defining characteristic of HROs. B: Reluctance to simplify is not a common characteristic as HROs value simplicity and clarity in communication. D: Deference to expertise is beneficial but not exclusive to HROs as many organizations value expertise. Therefore, the preoccupation with failure is the key characteristic of a high reliability organization.
Which of the following should be included in a discussion of advance directives with new nurse graduates?
- A. According to the Patient Self-Determination Act, nurses are required to inform clients of their right to create an advance directive.
- B. The advance directive designates an individual who will make financial decisions for the client if he or she is unable to do so.
- C. A living will designates who will make health-care decisions for an individual in the event the individual is unable or incompetent to make his or her own decisions.
- D. The advance directive designates a health-care surrogate who will make known the client’s wishes regarding medical treatment if the client is unable to do so.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The Patient Self-Determination Act requires healthcare providers, including nurses, to inform clients of their right to create an advance directive.
Step 2: New nurse graduates need to understand this legal requirement to comply with ethical and legal standards.
Step 3: By discussing this requirement with new nurse graduates, they will be better equipped to provide information and support to clients regarding advance directives.
Step 4: This step is crucial in ensuring that clients' autonomy and right to self-determination are respected.
Step 5: Option A is the correct answer as it directly relates to the legal obligation of nurses in discussing advance directives with clients.
Summary: Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the specific legal requirement outlined in the Patient Self-Determination Act for informing clients about their right to create an advance directive.