Nokea
When counseling a patient about treatment modalities for achalasia, the AGACNP advised that which of the following is the treatment of choice?
- A. Calcium channel antagonists
- B. Intrasphincter botulinum injection
- C. Pneumatic dilation
- D. Myotomy and partial fundoplication
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for choice A: Calcium channel antagonists are the treatment of choice for achalasia as they help relax the lower esophageal sphincter, improving swallowing. This is a non-invasive option that can provide symptom relief for many patients.
Summary for other choices:
B: Intrasphincter botulinum injection is a temporary solution and not considered the treatment of choice.
C: Pneumatic dilation is another option for achalasia but is typically used if calcium channel antagonists are ineffective.
D: Myotomy and partial fundoplication is a more invasive surgical option and usually considered if other treatments fail.
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K. T. presents for a routine wellness examination, and the review of systems is significant only for a markedly decreased capacity for intake and a vague sense of nausea after eating. K. T. denies any other symptoms the remainder of the GI review of systems is negative. His medical history is significant for complicated peptic ulcer disease that finally required resection for a perforated ulcer. The AGACNP advises the patient that
- A. He will need endoscopy to evaluate the problem
- B. Chronic gastroparesis is a known complication of ulcer surgery
- C. Medication is unlikely to help, and he may need another surgery
- D. His symptoms occur in 5 to 10% of people after ulcer surgery
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C):
1. The patient's symptoms of decreased capacity for intake and nausea after eating suggest gastroparesis, a common complication post-ulcer surgery.
2. Given the history of complicated peptic ulcer disease and prior surgery, medication may be ineffective, necessitating potential reoperation.
3. The AGACNP advises that another surgery may be needed, indicating that medication alone may not suffice to address the issue.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Endoscopy is not necessary at this point as the symptoms are likely indicative of a functional issue rather than a structural problem.
B: While gastroparesis can occur post-ulcer surgery, the patient's symptoms are more suggestive of gastroparesis rather than chronic gastroparesis as a known complication.
D: The frequency of occurrence of symptoms after ulcer surgery is not relevant to the current management of the patient's symptoms.
Obstructed labor MAINLY results due to
- A. Maternal exhaustion
- B. Cephalopelvic disproportion
- C. Microsomic fetus
- D. Fetal exsanguination
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cephalopelvic disproportion. This condition occurs when the baby's head is too large to pass through the mother's pelvis during labor. This leads to obstructed labor, causing complications for both the mother and the baby. Maternal exhaustion (A) may occur as a result of prolonged labor but is not the primary cause of obstructed labor. Microsomic fetus (C) refers to a small baby and would not typically cause obstructed labor. Fetal exsanguination (D) is the loss of blood from the fetus and is not a common cause of obstructed labor. Cephalopelvic disproportion is the most common reason for obstructed labor as it directly affects the passage of the baby through the birth canal.
Congenital retraction of the prepuce, so that the glans is permanently exposed, is known as
- A. Phimosis
- B. Paraphimosis
- C. Hypospadias
- D. Hermaphroditism
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Congenital retraction of the prepuce, leading to permanent glans exposure, describes paraphimosis. This condition occurs when the foreskin is pulled back and cannot return to its normal position, causing pain and swelling. Phimosis (A) is the inability to retract the foreskin over the glans. Hypospadias (C) is a urethral opening on the underside of the penis. Hermaphroditism (D) is a rare condition of having both male and female reproductive organs. Paraphimosis (B) is the specific term for the given scenario.
Productive cough, dyspnoea at rest, and generalized oedema are among the features of:
- A. Folate deficiency
- B. Very severe anaemia
- C. Mild iron deficiency
- D. Severe anaemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Very severe anaemia. Productive cough, dyspnoea at rest, and generalized oedema are classic symptoms of very severe anaemia due to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Anemia leads to tissue hypoxia, causing shortness of breath and fluid retention. Folate deficiency (A) typically presents with megaloblastic anemia, not generalized edema. Mild iron deficiency (C) may lead to fatigue and weakness but not the severe symptoms described. Severe anemia (D) is too broad; very severe anemia specifically refers to the severity of the condition.
In myelodysplastic syndromes, the primary indications for splenectomy include
- A. Major hemolysis unresponsive to medical management
- B. Severe symptoms of massive splenomegaly
- C. Sustained leukocyte elevation above 30,000 cells/µL
- D. Portal hypertension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. In myelodysplastic syndromes, splenectomy is indicated for sustained leukocyte elevation above 30,000 cells/µL to manage symptomatic splenomegaly and cytopenias. This is because an enlarged spleen can sequester and destroy blood cells, leading to low blood cell counts. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as splenectomy is not typically indicated for major hemolysis unresponsive to medical management, severe symptoms of massive splenomegaly, or portal hypertension in the context of myelodysplastic syndromes.