When counseling a patient about treatment modalities for achalasia, the AGACNP advised that which of the following is the treatment of choice?
- A. Calcium channel antagonists
- B. Intrasphincter botulinum injection
- C. Pneumatic dilation
- D. Myotomy and partial fundoplication
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for choice A: Calcium channel antagonists are the treatment of choice for achalasia as they help relax the lower esophageal sphincter, improving swallowing. This is a non-invasive option that can provide symptom relief for many patients.
Summary for other choices:
B: Intrasphincter botulinum injection is a temporary solution and not considered the treatment of choice.
C: Pneumatic dilation is another option for achalasia but is typically used if calcium channel antagonists are ineffective.
D: Myotomy and partial fundoplication is a more invasive surgical option and usually considered if other treatments fail.
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K. T. presents for a routine wellness examination, and the review of systems is significant only for a markedly decreased capacity for intake and a vague sense of nausea after eating. K. T. denies any other symptoms the remainder of the GI review of systems is negative. His medical history is significant for complicated peptic ulcer disease that finally required resection for a perforated ulcer. The AGACNP advises the patient that
- A. He will need endoscopy to evaluate the problem
- B. Chronic gastroparesis is a known complication of ulcer surgery
- C. Medication is unlikely to help, and he may need another surgery
- D. His symptoms occur in 5 to 10% of people after ulcer surgery
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C):
1. The patient's symptoms of decreased capacity for intake and nausea after eating suggest gastroparesis, a common complication post-ulcer surgery.
2. Given the history of complicated peptic ulcer disease and prior surgery, medication may be ineffective, necessitating potential reoperation.
3. The AGACNP advises that another surgery may be needed, indicating that medication alone may not suffice to address the issue.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Endoscopy is not necessary at this point as the symptoms are likely indicative of a functional issue rather than a structural problem.
B: While gastroparesis can occur post-ulcer surgery, the patient's symptoms are more suggestive of gastroparesis rather than chronic gastroparesis as a known complication.
D: The frequency of occurrence of symptoms after ulcer surgery is not relevant to the current management of the patient's symptoms.
Mother-to-child transmission of TB organisms never occurs during labor.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. -
- D. -
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: TB can be transmitted through respiratory droplets, not just during labor.
Step 2: Mother with active TB can transmit the bacteria to the child during childbirth.
Step 3: Therefore, the statement that mother-to-child transmission never occurs during labor is false.
Summary: Choice B is correct because TB transmission can occur during labor, making Choice A incorrect. Choices C and D are irrelevant.
The PRIORITY health message to share with a client in the recovery room immediately following cesarean section includes
- A. Frequent coughing & deep breathing
- B. Importance of perineal self-care
- C. Importance of early ambulation
- D. Signs of puerperal infections
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Importance of early ambulation. After a cesarean section, early ambulation is crucial to prevent complications like blood clots and promote circulation. It helps prevent post-operative complications. Choice A is important for respiratory health but not the priority right after surgery. Choice B focuses on perineal care which is important but not the immediate priority. Choice D is important, but recognizing signs of infection can wait until the client is more stable. Early ambulation is key to preventing complications and aiding in recovery.
The recommended number of chest compressions for neonatal resuscitation is
- A. 60 compressions coordinated with 30 breaths per minute
- B. 3 compressions coordinated with 1 breath per minute
- C. 1 compression coordinated with 3 breaths per minute
- D. 90 compressions coordinated with 30 breaths per minute
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 60 compressions coordinated with 30 breaths per minute. In neonatal resuscitation, the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio is 3:1. This means 3 compressions are given followed by 1 breath. With a target compression rate of 120 per minute, this translates to 60 compressions coordinated with 30 breaths per minute. Each compression should be at a depth of about one-third the anterior-posterior diameter of the chest. This ratio and rate are crucial for maintaining adequate circulation and oxygenation during neonatal resuscitation.
Choice B: 3 compressions coordinated with 1 breath per minute is too slow and would not provide enough support for the neonate's circulation.
Choice C: 1 compression coordinated with 3 breaths per minute would not provide sufficient compressions to maintain circulation.
Choice D: 90 compressions coordinated with 30 breaths per minute would result in an incorrect compression-to-vent
Complete placenta praevia is also referred to as
- A. Type 4
- B. Type 1
- C. Type 2
- D. Type 3
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Placenta praevia is classified into four types based on the degree of coverage of the cervix by the placenta. Complete placenta praevia, where the internal os is completely covered by the placenta, is referred to as Type 4. This is the correct answer as it accurately describes the specific condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the classification system for placenta praevia.
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