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When developing a plan of care for a client in the psychiatric unit following aspiration of a caustic material related to a suicide attempt, which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?
- A. Risk for injury.
- B. Ineffective coping mechanisms.
- C. Alteration in comfort.
- D. Ineffective breathing patterns.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When a client aspirates a caustic material, the priority nursing diagnosis should focus on addressing physiological concerns, particularly related to breathing patterns. Aspiration of caustic material can lead to airway compromise, respiratory distress, and potential lung damage. Therefore, monitoring and addressing ineffective breathing patterns are crucial for ensuring the client's immediate safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and C are important considerations in psychiatric care but are secondary to the critical physiological issue of ineffective breathing patterns in this scenario.
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A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a medical diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. During the admission procedure, the client looks up and states, 'No, it's not MY fault. You can't blame me. I didn't kill him, you did.' What action is best for the nurse to take?
- A. Reassure the client by telling him that his fear of the admission procedure is to be expected.
- B. Tell the client that no one is accusing him of murder and remind him that the hospital is a safe place.
- C. Assess the content of the hallucinations by asking the client what he is hearing.
- D. Ignore the behavior and make no response at all to his delusional statements.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to assess the content of the hallucinations by asking the client what he is hearing (C). Further assessment is needed to understand the nature of the client's delusions and hallucinations. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on reassuring the client about his fear, which is not addressing the underlying issue of the delusional statement. Choice B is incorrect as it argues with the client's delusion and offers false reassurance, which is not therapeutic. Choice D is incorrect as ignoring the behavior and making no response disregards the client's needs for assessment and support.
A 72-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depression. Which statement by the client should be of greatest concern to the nurse and require further assessment?
- A. "I will die if my cat dies."
- B. "I don't feel like eating this morning."
- C. "I just went to my friend's funeral."
- D. "Don't you have more important things to do?"
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sometimes a client will use an analogy to describe themselves, and (A) would be an indication for conducting a suicide assessment. (B) could have a variety of etiologies, and while further assessment is indicated, this statement does not indicate potential suicide. The normal grief process differs from depression, and at this client's age, peer/cohort deaths are more frequent, so (C) would be within normal limits. (D) is an expression of low self-esteem typical of depression. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are examples of decreased energy and mood levels which would negate suicide ideation at this time.
The occupational health nurse is working with a female employee who was just notified that her child was involved in a MVA and taken to the hospital. The employee states, 'I can't believe this. What should I do?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide in this crisis?
- A. Tell me what you think should happen.
- B. How serious was the collision?
- C. What do you think you should do?
- D. Call for transportation to the hospital.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Providing immediate practical support, such as arranging transportation to the hospital, is the best response in this crisis situation. It helps the employee to take immediate action and supports her in a highly stressful moment. Choice A focuses on the employee's thoughts rather than providing immediate aid. Choice B is not a priority as the severity can be addressed later. Choice C puts the decision-making burden on the employee at a time of distress, which is not ideal. Therefore, choice D is the most appropriate response in this situation.
A 52-year-old male client in the intensive care unit who has been oriented suddenly becomes disoriented and fearful. Assessment of vital signs and other physical parameters reveal no significant change, and the nurse formulates the diagnosis, 'Confusion related to ICU psychosis.' Which intervention would be best to implement?
- A. Move all machines away from the client's immediate area.
- B. Attempt to allay the client's fears by explaining the etiology of his condition.
- C. Cluster care so that brief periods of rest can be scheduled during the day.
- D. Extend visitation times for family and friends.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In critical care environments, stressors can lead to isolation and confusion. Providing the client with scheduled rest periods (C) can help alleviate these symptoms. Moving all machines away (A) is impractical as they are often essential. Explaining the condition (B) may not be effective during acute confusion. Extending visitation times (D) can be overwhelming for the client in the ICU.
A male client with alcohol dependence is admitted for detoxification. The nurse knows that which assessment finding is indicative of alcohol withdrawal?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Tremors
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tremors are a common sign of alcohol withdrawal. The central nervous system becomes hyperexcitable due to the suppression caused by chronic alcohol intake. Tremors are a manifestation of this hyperexcitability and are a key indicator of alcohol withdrawal. Bradycardia and hypotension are more commonly associated with conditions like shock or severe dehydration rather than alcohol withdrawal. Hyperglycemia is not a typical finding in alcohol withdrawal; instead, hypoglycemia is more commonly seen due to the effects of alcohol on glucose metabolism.