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When developing a plan of care for a client with dementia, what should the LPN/LVN remember about confusion in the elderly?
- A. It is not a normal part of aging.
- B. It often follows relocation to new surroundings.
- C. It is primarily due to changes in the brain associated with the disease.
- D. It cannot be prevented or cured by adequate sleep alone.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When caring for a client with dementia, it is crucial to understand that confusion often arises after relocating to new surroundings. This change can disrupt familiar routines and trigger increased disorientation and confusion. Choice A is correct because confusion in the elderly is not a normal part of aging. Choice C is incorrect because confusion in dementia is primarily due to changes in the brain associated with the disease, not just irreversible brain pathology. Choice D is incorrect because while adequate sleep is important for overall health, it alone cannot prevent or cure confusion associated with dementia.
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The mother of a toddler calls the nurse for help as the baby is choking on his food. The nurse determines that the Heimlich maneuver is necessary based on which finding?
- A. Inability of the toddler to cry or speak
- B. Coughing forcefully
- C. Gagging but able to breathe
- D. Wheezing during respiration
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is option A: Inability of the toddler to cry or speak. In cases of choking, the inability to cry or speak indicates a severe airway obstruction where the Heimlich maneuver is necessary to clear the obstruction and establish a patent airway. Option B, coughing forcefully, represents a partial obstruction where the child can still move air, making the Heimlich maneuver not immediately necessary. Option C, gagging but able to breathe, suggests a partial obstruction where air is moving, and the child can still breathe, not requiring immediate intervention like the Heimlich maneuver. Option D, wheezing during respiration, is more indicative of a lower airway issue such as asthma rather than an upper airway obstruction that necessitates the Heimlich maneuver.
A 3-year-old child has had multiple tooth extractions while under general anesthesia. The client returns from the post-anesthesia care unit crying but awake. Which approach is likely to be successful?
- A. Examine the mouth first
- B. Reassure the child
- C. Examine the mouth last
- D. Offer a pacifier
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, it is crucial to prioritize the comfort of the child. By examining the mouth last, discomfort is minimized, and the child is given the opportunity to settle down. Choosing to examine the mouth first may escalate the distress of the child further. While reassuring the child is important, in this case, addressing the physical discomfort before providing emotional reassurance is more effective. Offering a pacifier may provide some comfort, but addressing the immediate physical discomfort by examining the mouth last is the most appropriate action to help the child settle down after the procedure.
The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?
- A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
- B. Irregular heart rhythm
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Fatigue
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. It can indicate a worsening of the condition, pulmonary edema, or the development of a complication such as heart failure. A blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress in this context. An irregular heart rhythm is expected in atrial fibrillation and may not necessarily be a new or concerning finding. Fatigue is a common symptom in atrial fibrillation but is not as acutely concerning as shortness of breath, which may indicate compromised oxygenation and circulation.
During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client's pulse deficit (per minute)?
- A. 16
- B. 12
- C. 6
- D. 14
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.
During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?
- A. Atelectasis
- B. Renal calculi
- C. Pressure ulcers
- D. Joint contractures
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.