Nokea
When developing an educational program for adolescents about nutrition during the third trimester of pregnancy, which of the following statements should be included?
- A. Consume three to four servings of dairy each day.
- B. Increase daily caloric intake by 600 to 700 calories.
- C. Limit daily sodium intake to less than 1 gram.
- D. Increase protein intake to 40 to 50 grams per day.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consume three to four servings of dairy each day. During the third trimester of pregnancy, calcium needs increase to support the baby's bone development. Dairy products are a rich source of calcium. Adolescents are still growing themselves, so adequate calcium intake is crucial for both the mother and baby.
B: Increasing caloric intake by 600 to 700 calories is not specific to the third trimester and may lead to excessive weight gain, which can be harmful.
C: Limiting sodium intake to less than 1 gram is not necessary during pregnancy, and some sodium is required for maintaining fluid balance.
D: Increasing protein intake to 40 to 50 grams per day is important, but it is not specific to the third trimester and may vary based on individual needs.
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When a client states, 'My water just broke,' what is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Perform Nitrazine testing.
- B. Assess the fluid.
- C. Check cervical dilation.
- D. Begin FHR monitoring.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Begin FHR monitoring. This is the priority intervention because assessing the fetal heart rate (FHR) helps determine the well-being of the baby after the water breaking. Monitoring the FHR can indicate if the baby is in distress and prompt further actions if needed. Performing Nitrazine testing (choice A) is used to confirm if the fluid is amniotic fluid, but FHR monitoring takes precedence. Assessing the fluid (choice B) is important but not as urgent as monitoring the FHR. Checking cervical dilation (choice C) is not the priority as ensuring the baby's well-being through FHR monitoring is crucial in this situation.
A healthcare provider is discussing the differences between true labor and false labor with a group of expectant parents. Which of the following characteristics should the healthcare provider include when discussing true labor?
- A. Contractions become stronger with walking.
- B. Discomfort can be relieved with a back massage.
- C. Contractions become irregular with a change in activity.
- D. Discomfort is felt above the umbilicus.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Contractions become stronger with walking. This is because true labor is characterized by contractions that consistently increase in intensity and frequency, which is often enhanced by physical activity like walking. Contractions in false labor do not typically intensify with movement. Discomfort in true labor is usually not easily relieved by a back massage (B) and contractions in true labor remain regular even with changes in activity (C). Discomfort in true labor is typically felt in the lower abdomen and back, not above the umbilicus (D).
A client who is pregnant is scheduled for a contraction stress test (CST). Which of the following findings are indications for this procedure? (Select all that apply)
- A. Decreased fetal movement
- B. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
- C. Postmaturity
- D. All of the Above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, All of the Above.
1. Decreased fetal movement indicates fetal distress, necessitating CST.
2. IUGR implies potential placental insufficiency, requiring CST evaluation.
3. Postmaturity increases risk of placental insufficiency, warranting CST.
Other choices are incorrect as they do not directly indicate the need for CST in a pregnant client.
A client who is at 22 weeks of gestation reports concern about the blotchy hyperpigmentation on her forehead. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Tell the client to follow up with a dermatologist.
- B. Explain to the client this is an expected occurrence.
- C. Instruct the client to increase her intake of vitamin D.
- D. Inform the client she might have an allergy to her skin care products.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The blotchy hyperpigmentation on the client's forehead is likely melasma, a common occurrence during pregnancy. This is due to hormonal changes causing increased melanin production. The nurse should educate the client that this is an expected occurrence during pregnancy and reassure her that it is usually temporary and will fade postpartum.
Choice A (Tell the client to follow up with a dermatologist) is incorrect because dermatological consultation is not typically necessary for melasma during pregnancy.
Choice C (Instruct the client to increase her intake of vitamin D) is incorrect because vitamin D deficiency is not typically associated with blotchy hyperpigmentation on the forehead during pregnancy.
Choice D (Inform the client she might have an allergy to her skin care products) is incorrect because melasma is not caused by allergies to skincare products.
A healthcare professional is assisting with the care of a client who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering if magnesium sulfate toxicity is suspected?
- A. Nifedipine
- B. Pyridoxine
- C. Ferrous sulfate
- D. Calcium gluconate
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Calcium gluconate. When magnesium sulfate toxicity is suspected, calcium gluconate is administered because it antagonizes the effects of magnesium on the heart and central nervous system. This helps to counteract the muscle weakness, respiratory depression, and cardiac arrhythmias associated with magnesium toxicity. Nifedipine (A) is a calcium channel blocker and is not indicated for magnesium toxicity. Pyridoxine (B) is a form of vitamin B6 and is not used to treat magnesium toxicity. Ferrous sulfate (C) is an iron supplement and is not relevant in the management of magnesium toxicity.