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When educating a pregnant client about potential complications, which manifestation should the nurse emphasize reporting to the provider promptly?
- A. Vaginal bleeding
- B. Swelling of the ankles
- C. Heartburn after eating
- D. Lightheadedness when lying on back
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vaginal bleeding. This is crucial to report promptly as it could indicate serious issues like placental abruption or miscarriage. Swelling of the ankles (B) is common in pregnancy but not typically an urgent concern. Heartburn (C) is common and can be managed with lifestyle changes. Lightheadedness when lying on the back (D) is likely due to inferior vena cava compression and can be relieved by changing position. Reporting vaginal bleeding is vital for timely intervention in pregnancy complications.
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A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation and reports daily mild headaches is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Administer ibuprofen 400 mg twice daily.
- B. Recommend that the client perform conscious relaxation techniques daily.
- C. Give the client ginseng tea with each meal.
- D. Instruct the client to soak in a bath with a water temperature of 105°F for 15 minutes daily.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Recommend that the client perform conscious relaxation techniques daily. Headaches during pregnancy can be common due to hormonal changes and increased blood volume. The nurse should recommend non-pharmacological interventions like relaxation techniques to manage headaches safely without medication. Conscious relaxation techniques can help reduce stress and tension, potentially alleviating headaches. Ibuprofen (choice A) is not recommended during pregnancy due to potential harm to the fetus. Ginseng tea (choice C) is not safe for pregnant women as it may lead to complications. Soaking in a hot bath (choice D) with a water temperature of 105°F can raise the body temperature, which is not advised during pregnancy as it may harm the baby.
A client at 42 weeks of gestation is having an ultrasound. For which of the following conditions should the nurse prepare for an amnioinfusion? (Select all that apply)
- A. Oligohydramnios
- B. Hydramnios
- C. Fetal cord compression
- D. Polyhydramnios
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A client at 42 weeks of gestation is at risk for oligohydramnios, which is associated with decreased amniotic fluid levels. Amnioinfusion can be used to increase amniotic fluid volume to prevent fetal cord compression and facilitate fetal movement during labor.
Summary:
- B: Hydramnios (excessive amniotic fluid) does not require amnioinfusion.
- C: Fetal cord compression is a reason for amnioinfusion, not a condition to prepare for.
- D: Polyhydramnios (excessive amniotic fluid) does not typically require amnioinfusion unless there are complicating factors.
A client in a family planning clinic requests oral contraceptives. Which of the following findings in the client's history should be recognized as contraindications to oral contraceptives? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Cholecystitis
- B. Hypertension
- C. Migraine headaches
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Cholecystitis, hypertension, and migraine headaches are all contraindications to oral contraceptives. Cholecystitis can be exacerbated by oral contraceptives. Hypertension increases the risk of cardiovascular events with oral contraceptives. Migraine headaches, especially with aura, are associated with an increased risk of stroke when combined with oral contraceptives. Therefore, considering these risks, it is crucial to recognize these findings as contraindications to prescribing oral contraceptives.
A healthcare provider is instructing a client who is taking an oral contraceptive about manifestations to report. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Reduced menstrual flow
- B. Breast tenderness
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Increased appetite
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Shortness of breath. This is because shortness of breath can indicate a potentially serious side effect like a blood clot, which is a rare but serious complication associated with oral contraceptives. Reduced menstrual flow (A) is a common side effect and not typically a cause for concern. Breast tenderness (B) is a common but generally benign side effect of oral contraceptives. Increased appetite (D) is also a common side effect but not typically a sign of a serious complication. Therefore, the healthcare provider should emphasize the importance of reporting shortness of breath promptly.
A healthcare professional is assisting with the care of a client who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering if magnesium sulfate toxicity is suspected?
- A. Nifedipine
- B. Pyridoxine
- C. Ferrous sulfate
- D. Calcium gluconate
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Calcium gluconate. When magnesium sulfate toxicity is suspected, calcium gluconate is administered because it antagonizes the effects of magnesium on the heart and central nervous system. This helps to counteract the muscle weakness, respiratory depression, and cardiac arrhythmias associated with magnesium toxicity. Nifedipine (A) is a calcium channel blocker and is not indicated for magnesium toxicity. Pyridoxine (B) is a form of vitamin B6 and is not used to treat magnesium toxicity. Ferrous sulfate (C) is an iron supplement and is not relevant in the management of magnesium toxicity.