Nokea
When explaining a viral disease that begins with malaise and a highly pruritic rash starting on the abdomen, spreading to the face and proximal extremities, and potentially leading to severe complications, which childhood disease is a nurse discussing with members of a grammar school's Parent-Teachers Association?
- A. Rubella
- B. Rubeola
- C. Chickenpox
- D. Scarlet fever
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Chickenpox (varicella). This viral disease typically starts with malaise and a highly pruritic rash that begins on the abdomen and then spreads to the face and proximal extremities. Chickenpox can result in serious complications such as pneumonia and encephalitis. Rubella (German measles) presents with a milder rash and is less pruritic than chickenpox. Rubeola (measles) is characterized by a rash that spreads from the head to the trunk. Scarlet fever is caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria and is not a viral illness.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is caring for an infant with a tentative diagnosis of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS). What is most important for the nurse to assess?
- A. Quality of the cry
- B. Signs of dehydration
- C. Coughing up feedings
- D. Characteristics of the stool
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Signs of dehydration. Assessing for signs of dehydration is crucial in infants with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) because they are at high risk due to frequent vomiting. Dehydration can lead to serious complications if not promptly addressed. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority assessments for HPS. While the quality of the cry can provide some information on the infant's distress level, dehydration assessment takes precedence. Coughing up feedings may not be specific to HPS, and characteristics of the stool, although important in general assessments, are not the priority in this situation.
During an oral cavity assessment of a 6-month-old infant, the parent inquires about which teeth will erupt first. How should the healthcare provider respond?
- A. Incisors
- B. Canines
- C. Upper molars
- D. Lower molars
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Incisors are the teeth that typically erupt first in infants, usually around 6 months of age. These teeth play a crucial role in biting and cutting food. Canines, upper molars, and lower molars are not the primary teeth to erupt in infants. Canines usually erupt after incisors, while molars, whether upper or lower, come in later during the teething process.
A nurse is assessing the oral cavity of a 6-month-old infant. The parent asks which teeth will erupt first. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Incisors
- B. Canines
- C. Upper molars
- D. Lower molars
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Incisors. In infants, incisors are usually the first teeth to erupt, typically around 6 months of age. These are the front teeth used for cutting food. Canines (Choice B), upper molars (Choice C), and lower molars (Choice D) typically erupt after the incisors. Canines are sharp teeth used for tearing food, while molars are flat teeth used for grinding food.
The nurse is caring for an 8-year-old girl with an endocrine disorder involving the posterior pituitary gland. What care would the nurse expect to implement?
- A. Instructing the parents to report adverse reactions to the growth hormone treatment
- B. Teaching the parents how to administer desmopressin acetate
- C. Informing the parents that treatment stops when puberty begins
- D. Educating the parents to report signs of acute adrenal crisis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a child with a disorder of the posterior pituitary gland, desmopressin acetate is commonly used to manage the condition by replacing the antidiuretic hormone. Instructing the parents to administer desmopressin acetate correctly is essential for the child's treatment. The other options are incorrect because growth hormone treatment, stopping treatment at puberty, and reporting signs of acute adrenal crisis are not directly related to managing a disorder of the posterior pituitary gland.
Surgical repair for patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is done to prevent the complication of
- A. pulmonary infection
- B. right-to-left shunt of blood
- C. decreased workload on left side of the heart
- D. increased pulmonary vascular congestion
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: increased pulmonary vascular congestion. Surgical repair of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) aims to prevent the complications associated with increased pulmonary vascular congestion, such as pulmonary hypertension and heart failure. Choice A, pulmonary infection, is not a direct complication of PDA but can occur secondary to other conditions. Choice B, right-to-left shunt of blood, is a feature of some congenital heart defects but not a direct complication of PDA. Choice C, decreased workload on the left side of the heart, is not a primary reason for surgical repair of PDA, as the main concern is the impact on pulmonary circulation.