When is the best time to administer pancreatic enzyme replacement?
- A. Before meals and snacks
- B. Before bedtime
- C. Early in the morning
- D. After meals and snacks
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer pancreatic enzyme replacement before meals and snacks. This timing is crucial as it allows the enzymes to assist in the digestion of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins that are consumed during the meals. Administering the replacement after meals and snacks would not be effective as the enzymes need to be present in the digestive system when food is consumed. Options B and C are incorrect as they do not align with the optimal timing for pancreatic enzyme replacement administration.
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How are type IV hypersensitivity reactions different from all other types (I, II, or III) of hypersensitivity reactions?
- A. They involve antigen-antibody complexes.
- B. They are mediated by T cells and do not involve antibodies.
- C. They result in immediate allergic reactions.
- D. They are the least severe form of hypersensitivity.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by T cells and cytokine release, leading to delayed reactions, unlike types I, II, and III, which involve antibodies. Choice A is incorrect because type IV reactions do not involve antigen-antibody complexes. Choice C is incorrect as type IV reactions do not result in immediate allergic reactions. Choice D is incorrect as type IV reactions are not the least severe form of hypersensitivity; in fact, they are known to cause significant tissue damage and inflammation.
A client with Cushing's Syndrome is recovering from an elective laparoscopic procedure. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Irregular apical pulse
- B. Purple marks on the skin of the abdomen
- C. Quarter-sized blood spot on the dressing
- D. Pitting ankle edema
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Irregular apical pulse. In a client recovering from a laparoscopic procedure with Cushing's Syndrome, an irregular apical pulse can be indicative of a life-threatening arrhythmia and requires immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not as urgent as an irregular apical pulse. Purple marks on the skin of the abdomen may be related to Cushing's Syndrome, a quarter-sized blood spot on the dressing can be managed with appropriate wound care, and pitting ankle edema may be expected postoperatively but does not require immediate intervention.
A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Administer antihypertensive medication as prescribed.
- B. Place the client in a supine position.
- C. Obtain a detailed health history.
- D. Monitor urine output.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering antihypertensive medication is the priority nursing action in this situation. The extremely high blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg puts the client at risk of severe complications such as stroke, heart attack, or kidney damage. Lowering the blood pressure promptly is crucial to prevent these complications. Placing the client in a supine position or obtaining a detailed health history are not immediate actions needed to address the hypertensive crisis. Monitoring urine output, although important, is not the priority when the client's blood pressure is critically high.
The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a chest tube. Which finding indicates that the chest tube is functioning properly?
- A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
- B. Tidaling in the water seal chamber
- C. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber
- D. Fluid level in the suction control chamber is below the prescribed level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tidaling in the water seal chamber indicates proper chest tube function. Tidaling refers to the rise and fall of fluid in the water seal with inhalation and exhalation, demonstrating the patency of the system. Continuous bubbling (Choice A) in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber (Choice C) is not a desired finding as it suggests no drainage is occurring. A fluid level below the prescribed level in the suction control chamber (Choice D) may indicate inadequate suction.
A male client with heart failure calls the clinic and reports that he cannot put his shoes on because they are too tight. Which additional information should the nurse obtain?
- A. What time he took his medication?
- B. Has his weight changed in the last several days?
- C. Is he still able to tighten his belt buckle?
- D. How many hours he slept last night?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Has his weight changed in the last several days?' Sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention, which is a common symptom of worsening heart failure. The inability to put on tight shoes can be due to fluid retention leading to swelling in the feet and ankles. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the potential fluid retention issue and are less relevant in this scenario.