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When it is noted that a patient’s endotracheal tube is not se cured tightened, he respiratory care practitioner assists the nurse in taping the tube. After the tu be is retaped, the nurse auscultates the patient’s lungs and notes that the breath sounds over the left lung fields are absent. The nurse suspects is the cause of this finding?
- A. The endotracheal tube is in the right mainstem bronchus.
- B. The patient has a left pneumothorax.
- C. The patient has aspirated secretions during the proceduarbeir.b .com/test
- D. The stethoscope earpiece is clogged with wax.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The endotracheal tube is in the right mainstem bronchus. When the endotracheal tube is not secured properly and is retaped, there is a possibility that it may have migrated into the right mainstem bronchus, leading to absent breath sounds in the left lung fields. This condition is known as endobronchial intubation. In such cases, ventilation primarily occurs in the right lung, resulting in decreased or absent breath sounds on the contralateral side. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not explain the absence of breath sounds over the left lung fields in this specific scenario.
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The patient is getting hemodialysis for the second time when he complains of a headache and nausea and, a little later, of becoming confused. The nurse realizes these are symptoms of
- A. dialyzer membrane incompatibility.
- B. a shift in potassium levels.
- C. dialysis disequilibrium syndrome.
- D. hypothermia.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: dialysis disequilibrium syndrome. This occurs when there is a rapid decrease in urea concentration in the blood during hemodialysis, causing fluid shifts and cerebral edema leading to symptoms like headache, nausea, and confusion. Dialyzer membrane incompatibility (A) would present with allergic reactions, not neurological symptoms. A shift in potassium levels (B) may cause muscle weakness or cardiac arrhythmias, but not the described symptoms. Hypothermia (D) would present with low body temperature and shivering, not the neurological symptoms mentioned.
The nurse is caring for a 48-year-old patient who is intubated and on a ventilator following extensive abdominal surgery. Although the patient is respo nsive, the nurse is not able to read the patient’s lips as the patient attempts to mouth the words. Which of the following assessment tools would be the most appropriate for the nu rse to use when assessing the patient’s pain level? (Select all that apply.)
- A. The FACES scale
- B. Pain Intensity Scale
- C. The PQRST method
- D. The Visual Analogue Scale
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The FACES scale. This scale uses facial expressions to assess pain, making it suitable for a patient who is unable to verbalize. The nurse can show the patient a series of faces depicting varying levels of pain and ask them to point to the one that best represents their pain level. This method is non-verbal and easy for patients to understand.
The other choices are incorrect:
B: The Pain Intensity Scale requires the patient to rate their pain on a numerical scale, which may be difficult for a non-verbal patient.
C: The PQRST method is a mnemonic for assessing pain characteristics (provocation, quality, region, severity, timing), but it requires patient communication.
D: The Visual Analogue Scale involves marking a point on a line to indicate pain intensity, which is not suitable for a non-verbal patient.
The nurse plans a teaching session with a client but postpones the planned session based on which nursing problem?
- A. Knowledge deficit regarding impending surgery.
- B. Ineffective management of treatment regimen.
- C. Activity intolerance related to postoperative pain.
- D. Noncompliance with prescribed exercise plan.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice C:
1. Activity intolerance is a priority nursing problem postoperatively due to pain.
2. Postoperative pain can limit the client's ability to perform activities.
3. Addressing activity intolerance is crucial for promoting recovery and preventing complications.
4. Delaying the teaching session helps the nurse focus on managing pain first.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
- Choice A: Knowledge deficit can be addressed after managing immediate postoperative issues.
- Choice B: Treatment regimen management is important but may not be as urgent as addressing activity intolerance related to pain.
- Choice D: Noncompliance with exercise plan can be addressed once the client's pain and activity intolerance are under control.
A patient who is orally intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation is anxious and is fighting the ventilator. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Verbally coach the patient to breathe with the ventilator.
- B. Sedate the patient with the ordered PRN lorazepam (Ativan).
- C. Manually ventilate the patient with a bag-valve-mask device.
- D. Increase the rate for the ordered propofol (Diprivan) infusion.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Verbally coach the patient to breathe with the ventilator. This approach allows the nurse to address the patient's anxiety and help them synchronize their breathing with the ventilator, promoting better ventilation and oxygenation. It is important to first try non-invasive interventions before resorting to sedation or manual ventilation. Sedating the patient (B) should be a last resort to avoid potential complications. Manual ventilation (C) may disrupt the ventilator settings and cause respiratory distress. Increasing the rate of propofol infusion (D) is not indicated unless the patient's sedation level is inadequate.
A patient is admitted to the ICU with injuries sustained from a fall from a third-story window. The patient is conscious, his breathing is labored, and he is bleeding heavily from the abdomen. He groans constantly and complains of severe pain, but his movements are minimal. His heart rate is elevated. Which of these is a sign that he is in the second phase of the stress response? Select all that apply.
- A. Bleeding heavily from his abdomen
- B. Labored, slow breathing
- C. Severe pain
- D. Elevated heart rate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Severe pain. In the second phase of the stress response (resistance phase), the body is trying to cope with the stressor. Severe pain is a sign of the body's response to the injury, indicating the activation of the stress response. Labored breathing and elevated heart rate are more likely to be signs of the initial phase (alarm phase) of the stress response. Bleeding heavily from the abdomen is a medical emergency and does not specifically indicate the stress response phase.