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When monitoring the effectiveness of treatment for a patient with a large anterior wall myocardial infarction, the most important information for the nurse to obtain is:
- A. Central venous pressure (CVP).
- B. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR).
- C. Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR).
- D. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP).
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP). This is crucial in monitoring a patient with a large anterior wall myocardial infarction as it provides information on left ventricular function and fluid status. A high PAWP may indicate left ventricular failure or fluid overload, requiring immediate intervention.
A: Central venous pressure (CVP) is not as specific for assessing left ventricular function and may not provide accurate information in this scenario.
B: Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is important in assessing systemic blood flow, but it may not directly indicate left ventricular function in this case.
C: Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) is more relevant in conditions affecting the pulmonary circulation and may not be as immediately informative in assessing left ventricular function in this context.
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A middle-aged patient tells the nurse, 'My mother died 4 months ago, and I just can’t seem to get over it. I’m not sure it is normal to still think about her every day.' Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate?
- A. Hopelessness related to the inability to resolve grief.
- B. Complicated grieving related to unresolved issues.
- C. Anxiety related to lack of knowledge about normal grieving.
- D. Chronic sorrow related to ongoing distress about the loss of a mother.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anxiety related to lack of knowledge about normal grieving. This is because the patient is expressing uncertainty and seeking validation for their feelings, indicating a lack of understanding about the grieving process. Choice A is incorrect as hopelessness typically involves feelings of despair and loss of motivation, which are not explicitly stated by the patient. Choice B is incorrect as complicated grieving involves specific unresolved issues related to the loss, which the patient did not mention. Choice D is incorrect as chronic sorrow is typically associated with ongoing feelings of sadness and longing, which are not explicitly expressed by the patient.
A 45-year-old postsurgical patient is on a ventilator in the critical care unit has been tolerating the ventilator well and has not required any sedation. The apbairtbi.ecnomt /bteesct omes tachycardic and hypertensive with a respiratory rate that has increased to 28 breaths/min. The ventilator is set on synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV ) at a rate of 10 breaths/min. The patient has been suctioned recently via existing endotracheal tube until airway is clear. When the patient responds appropriately to the nurse’s command s, what should be the nurse’s priority intervention?
- A. Assessing the patient’s level of pain
- B. Decreasing the SIMV rate on the ventilator
- C. Providing sedation as ordered
- D. Suctioning the patient again
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessing the patient's level of pain. In this situation, the patient's tachycardia, hypertension, and increased respiratory rate could be indicative of pain. By assessing the patient's pain level, the nurse can address any discomfort the patient may be experiencing, which could be contributing to these physiological responses.
Summary of other choices:
B: Decreasing the SIMV rate on the ventilator - This is not the priority intervention as the patient's symptoms are more likely related to pain rather than the ventilator settings.
C: Providing sedation as ordered - Sedation is not the priority in this case as the patient has been tolerating the ventilator well without requiring sedation.
D: Suctioning the patient again - Since the airway has been recently cleared, suctioning again is not necessary at this point and would not address the underlying cause of the patient's symptoms.
The following interventions are part of the emergency department (ED) protocol for a patient who has been admitted with multiple bee stings to the hands. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Remove the patient’s rings.
- B. Apply ice packs to both hands.
- C. Apply calamine lotion to any itching areas.
- D. Give diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 50 mg PO.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Remove the patient's rings first. This is crucial to prevent constriction and swelling due to potential allergic reactions or inflammation from bee stings. Removing rings allows for proper circulation and prevents complications like compartment syndrome. Ice packs (B) can be applied after removing the rings to reduce swelling. Calamine lotion (C) can provide relief for itching but is not as urgent as ring removal. Diphenhydramine (D) can be given later for systemic allergic reactions but should not take precedence over removing the rings.
A 6-year-old child is alert but quiet when brought to the emergency center with periorbital ecchymosis and ecchymosis behind the ears. The nurse suspects potential child abuse and continues to assess the child for additional manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. What assessment finding would be consistent with a basilar skull fracture?
- A. Hematemesis and abdominal distention.
- B. Asymmetry of the face and eye movements.
- C. Rhinorrhoea or otorrhoea with Halo sign.
- D. Abnormal position and movement of the arm.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rhinorrhoea or otorrhoea with Halo sign. This finding is consistent with a basilar skull fracture because it indicates a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak from the skull base. The Halo sign refers to a ring of CSF surrounded by blood, which can be seen on a white absorbent pad. This specific sign is a classic indicator of a basilar skull fracture, as the CSF leakage from the ears or nose can be tinged with blood due to the fracture disrupting nearby blood vessels.
For the other choices:
A: Hematemesis and abdominal distention are not typical manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. They are more indicative of gastrointestinal issues or internal bleeding.
B: Asymmetry of the face and eye movements can be seen with facial nerve or orbital injuries, but it is not specific to a basilar skull fracture.
D: Abnormal position and movement of the arm are not directly related to a
The nurse has identified an increase in medication errors in the critical care unit over the past several months. What aspect of medication procedures should be evaluated first?
- A. Adherence to procedures by nursing staff
- B. Clarity of interdisciplinary communication
- C. Number of new employees on the unit
- D. Changes in administration procedures
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Adherence to procedures by nursing staff. This should be evaluated first because medication errors are often caused by human factors such as staff not following proper procedures. By assessing adherence, the root cause of errors can be identified and addressed.
Choice B: Clarity of interdisciplinary communication may contribute to errors but doesn't directly address staff adherence to procedures.
Choice C: Number of new employees could be a factor, but focusing on adherence to procedures is more crucial.
Choice D: Changes in administration procedures may impact errors, but evaluating staff adherence is more immediate and directly related to errors.