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When performing a neurological examination on Mr. RR, which of the following would not be considered an important or useful part of the examination?
- A. Eye movements
- B. Reflexes
- C. Nuchal rigidity
- D. Pupil size NEUROLOGIC MEDICATIONS
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because pupil size is not typically a part of a routine neurological examination. A: Eye movements are assessed to evaluate cranial nerve functions. B: Reflexes help determine the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nervous system. C: Nuchal rigidity is important to assess for signs of meningitis or other neurological conditions. In contrast, pupil size is more relevant in ophthalmological examinations or when assessing response to specific medications affecting the pupil size.
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A new nurse is confused about using evaluative measures when caring for patients and asks the charge nurse for an explanation. Which response by the charge nurse is most accurate? “Evaluative measures are multiple-page documents used to evaluate nurse
- A. performance.” NursingStoreRN “Evaluative measures include assessment data used to determine whether patients
- B. have met their expected outcomes and goals.” “Evaluative measures are used by quality assurance nurses to determine the progress
- C. a nurse is making from novice to expert nurse.”
- D. “Evaluative measures are objective views for completion of nursing interventions.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because evaluative measures in nursing refer to the assessment data used to determine if patients have achieved their expected outcomes and goals. This is crucial in evaluating the effectiveness of the care provided.
Choice A is incorrect because it defines evaluative measures as multiple-page documents, which is not accurate. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on the progression of a nurse's skill level rather than patient outcomes. Choice D is incorrect as it defines evaluative measures as objective views of completing nursing interventions, which is too narrow of a definition.
Which of the following illustrates a common error when writing client outcomes?
- A. Client will drink 100 mL of fluid every 2 hours from 6 a.m. to 9 p.m.
- B. Client will demonstrate correct sequence of exercises by next office visit.
- C. Client will be less anxious and fearful before and after surgery.
- D. On discharge, client will list five symptoms of infection to report.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it does not provide a specific, measurable outcome. It is vague and subjective, making it difficult to assess and track progress. In contrast, choices A, B, and D are all specific, measurable, and time-bound goals, making them more effective for evaluating client outcomes. Choice A specifies the amount of fluid intake and the time frame, choice B sets a clear deadline for demonstrating a skill, and choice D outlines a specific task to be completed upon discharge. Therefore, C is the correct answer as it lacks the clear criteria needed for effective outcome evaluation.
A patient is being taught the action of digoxin, which is an inotropic agent. The nurse defines an inotropic agent as a medication that has which of the following actions?
- A. Decreases heart rate
- B. Increases conduction time
- C. Increases heart rate
- D. Strengthens heart contraction
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Strengthens heart contraction. Digoxin is an inotropic agent that works by increasing the force of the heart's contractions. This leads to improved cardiac output and helps manage conditions like heart failure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because digoxin does not decrease heart rate, increase conduction time, or increase heart rate. It specifically targets the strength of the heart's contractions, making option D the most appropriate choice. This action of digoxin is crucial in improving the efficiency of the heart's pumping function.
A patient complains of tingling in his fingers. He has positive Trousseau’s and Chvostek’s signs. He says that he feels depressed. Choose the most likely serum calcium (Ca ) value for this patient:
- A. 11mg/dl
- B. 7mg/dl
- C. 9mg/dl ⁺
- D. 5mg/dl
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 11mg/dl. This patient is likely experiencing hypocalcemia, indicated by positive Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs. These signs suggest neuromuscular irritability due to low calcium levels. A serum calcium level of 11mg/dl is higher than normal, indicating possible hyperparathyroidism causing high calcium levels. Choices B, C, and D are lower than normal, which would exacerbate symptoms rather than alleviate them.
A client is receiving methotrexate (Mexate), 12g/m2 IV to treat osteogenic carcinoma. During methotrexate therapy, the nurse expects the client to receive which other drug to protect normal cells?
- A. Probenecid (Benemid)
- B. Cytarabine (ara-C, cystosine arabinoside [Cytosar-U])
- C. Thioguanine (6-thioguanine, 6-TG)
- D. Leucovorin (Citrovorum factor or folinic acid [wellcovirin])
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Leucovorin. Leucovorin is administered with methotrexate to protect normal cells from methotrexate toxicity by acting as a "rescue" agent. Methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, leading to decreased levels of tetrahydrofolate needed for DNA synthesis. Leucovorin bypasses this step by directly providing the reduced form of folic acid, thus preventing toxicity in normal cells. Probenecid (choice A) is not used to protect normal cells during methotrexate therapy. Cytarabine (choice B) and Thioguanine (choice C) are not rescue agents for methotrexate toxicity.