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When performing an eye examination, which area can a healthcare provider best visualize using an ophthalmoscope?
- A. Iris
- B. Cornea
- C. Optic disc
- D. Conjunctiva
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An ophthalmoscope is a tool used to visualize the internal structures of the eye during an examination. The optic disc, located on the internal surface of the retina, can be best visualized using an ophthalmoscope. The iris, cornea, and conjunctiva are superficial structures that can be examined without the need for an ophthalmoscope. Therefore, the correct answer is the optic disc. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are external structures that can be examined directly without the use of an ophthalmoscope.
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A healthcare provider is assisting with data collection on a client for the major risk factors associated with coronary artery disease (CAD). Which modifiable risk factor does the healthcare provider obtain data on from the client?
- A. Age
- B. Ethnicity
- C. Hypertension
- D. Genetic inheritance
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypertension.' Risk factors for CAD are categorized as modifiable and unmodifiable. Unmodifiable risk factors include age, sex, ethnicity, genetic predisposition, and family history of heart disease. Modifiable risk factors include increased concentrations of serum lipids, hypertension, cigarette smoking, obesity, and level of physical activity. In this case, hypertension is a modifiable risk factor that the healthcare provider would obtain data on. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because age, ethnicity, and genetic inheritance are unmodifiable risk factors for CAD, not modifiable ones.
When a 25-year-old client complains of chest congestion and cough after previously presenting with cold symptoms, what data should the nurse collect?
- A. Data related to follow-up care
- B. A complete health database
- C. Data related to the respiratory system
- D. Data related to the treatment for the cold
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this case, the nurse should collect data related to the respiratory system since the client is presenting with symptoms like chest congestion and cough, indicating a respiratory issue. Focusing on the respiratory system will help gather pertinent information to assess the current problem comprehensively. A complete health database involves a detailed health history and full physical examination, which is beyond the immediate scope of the presenting issue. Data related to follow-up care is premature as the primary focus should be on assessing the current respiratory symptoms. Data related to the treatment for the cold is not the priority at this stage, as understanding the underlying respiratory problem is crucial for appropriate intervention.
A healthcare professional is assisting with data collection of a client with suspected cholecystitis. Which finding does the healthcare professional expect to note if cholecystitis is present?
- A. Homan sign
- B. Murphy sign
- C. Blumberg sign
- D. McBurney sign
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Murphy sign. The Murphy sign is an indicator of gallbladder disease. It involves the examiner placing fingers under the liver border while the client inhales. If the gallbladder is inflamed, it descends onto the fingers, causing pain. The Homan sign is associated with pain in the calf area upon sharp dorsiflexion of the foot, indicating deep vein thrombosis. The Blumberg sign is the presence of rebound tenderness on palpation of the abdomen, indicating peritoneal irritation. The McBurney sign is indicative of appendicitis, presenting as severe pain and tenderness upon palpation at McBurney's point in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen.
During the examination of a client's throat, a nurse touches the posterior wall with a tongue blade and elicits the gag reflex. The nurse documents normal function of which cranial nerves?
- A. Cranial nerves V and VI
- B. Cranial nerves XII and VIII
- C. Cranial nerves XII and VIII
- D. Cranial nerves IX and X
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve). When the nurse touches the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and elicits the gag reflex, it indicates normal function of these nerves. Cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VI (abducens nerve) are not directly responsible for the gag reflex. Cranial nerves XII (hypoglossal nerve) and VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve) are not directly involved in eliciting the gag reflex. Testing cranial nerve I involves smell function, and cranial nerve II is related to eye examinations, making them irrelevant in this scenario.
While assisting with data collection, the client informs the nurse that he is having difficulty swallowing medications and food. The nurse gathers additional subjective data and documents that the client is experiencing which disorder?
- A. Pyrosis
- B. Anorexia
- C. Eructation
- D. Dysphagia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Dysphagia.' Dysphagia is the term used to indicate difficulty swallowing, which can occur in disorders of the throat or esophagus. Anorexia refers to a loss of appetite, not difficulty swallowing. Eructation is the medical term for belching, not difficulty swallowing. Pyrosis is heartburn, a burning sensation in the esophagus and stomach caused by the reflux of gastric acid, not difficulty swallowing.