When planning care for a client newly diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma, the nurse identifies a priority nursing problem of visual sensory/perceptual alterations. This problem is based on which etiology?
- A. Limited eye movement.
- B. Decreased peripheral vision.
- C. Blurred distance vision.
- D. Photosensitivity.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased peripheral vision. In open-angle glaucoma, decreased peripheral vision is a characteristic symptom resulting from increased intraocular pressure. This visual impairment can lead to sensory/perceptual alterations. Choice A, limited eye movement, is not directly associated with the pathophysiology of open-angle glaucoma. Choice C, blurred distance vision, is more commonly seen in conditions like myopia or presbyopia. Choice D, photosensitivity, is not a typical manifestation of open-angle glaucoma and is more commonly associated with conditions like migraines or certain medications.
You may also like to solve these questions
The family of a newly admitted child with cystic fibrosis is educated by the nurse that the treatment will be centered on what therapy?
- A. Chest physiotherapy
- B. Mucus-drying agents
- C. Prevention of diarrhea
- D. Insulin therapy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest physiotherapy. In cystic fibrosis, chest physiotherapy and aerosol medications are fundamental components of treatment to help clear mucus from the lungs, reduce the risk of infections, and improve breathing. Mucus-drying agents (Choice B) are not typically used in the treatment of cystic fibrosis. Prevention of diarrhea (Choice C) is not a primary focus in the treatment of cystic fibrosis. Insulin therapy (Choice D) is not relevant to cystic fibrosis, as it is a treatment for diabetes.
A client who is receiving general anesthesia begins to demonstrate symptoms of malignant hyperthermia. Which intervention should the perioperative nurse prepare to implement first?
- A. Ensure patency of an indwelling catheter and measure hourly intake and output.
- B. Prepare for cessation of the anesthesia and the surgical procedure.
- C. Obtain specimens of ABGs and serum electrolytes.
- D. Initiate cooling measures using iced normal saline by nasogastric lavage.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare for cessation of the anesthesia and the surgical procedure. Malignant hyperthermia is a severe reaction to certain medications used during general anesthesia. The immediate intervention to manage malignant hyperthermia is to stop the triggering agents, which include anesthesia and surgery. Ensuring patency of an indwelling catheter and measuring intake and output, obtaining specimens of ABGs and serum electrolytes, and initiating cooling measures are important interventions but should follow the immediate action of stopping the anesthesia and surgery to address the life-threatening condition of malignant hyperthermia.
What information should the nurse include in the teaching plan of a client diagnosed with GERD?
- A. Sleep without using pillows
- B. Opt for five small meals throughout the day instead of three full meals with no snacks
- C. Minimize symptoms by wearing loose, comfortable clothing
- D. Engage in low-impact exercises like walking or swimming
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Minimize symptoms by wearing loose, comfortable clothing.' Wearing loose, comfortable clothing can help reduce pressure on the abdomen, which can alleviate GERD symptoms. Option A is incorrect as sleeping without using pillows is not a recommended practice for managing GERD. Option B is incorrect because it suggests adjusting food intake to five small meals throughout the day instead of three full meals with no snacks, which may not be suitable for everyone with GERD. Option D is incorrect as avoiding participation in any aerobic exercise program is not a standard recommendation for managing GERD; in fact, engaging in low-impact exercises like walking or swimming can be beneficial.
Which is a long-term complication of cleft lip and palate?
- A. Cognitive impairment
- B. Altered growth and development
- C. Faulty dentition
- D. Physical abilities
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Faulty dentition.' The older child with cleft lip and palate may experience psychological difficulties due to the cosmetic appearance of the defect, issues with impaired speech, and faulty dentition. This can lead to problems with dental alignment, crowding, missing or malformed teeth, and other dental issues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as cognitive impairment, altered growth and development, and physical abilities are not typically considered long-term complications of cleft lip and palate.
A client with Addison's disease started taking hydrocortisone in a divided daily dose last week. It is most important for the nurse to monitor which serum laboratory value?
- A. Osmolarity
- B. Glucose
- C. Albumin
- D. Platelets
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glucose. Hydrocortisone can lead to increased blood glucose levels, so monitoring glucose is crucial to assess for hyperglycemia, a common side effect of corticosteroid therapy. Monitoring osmolarity (choice A) is not typically indicated in this scenario. Albumin (choice C) and platelets (choice D) are not directly affected by hydrocortisone therapy and are not the primary focus of monitoring in this case.
Nokea