Nokea
When planning care for a client newly diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma, the nurse identifies a priority nursing problem of 'visual sensory/perceptual alterations.' This problem is based on which etiology?
- A. Blurred distance vision
- B. Limited eye movement
- C. Decreased peripheral vision
- D. Photosensitivity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Decreased peripheral vision.' Open-angle glaucoma leads to a gradual loss of peripheral vision due to damage to the optic nerve. This loss of peripheral vision is a hallmark sign of the condition and a primary reason for the visual sensory/perceptual alterations experienced by the client. Blurred distance vision (choice A) may occur but is not the priority nursing problem. Limited eye movement (choice B) and photosensitivity (choice D) are not typically associated with the sensory/perceptual alterations seen in open-angle glaucoma.
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The client who experiences angina has been advised to follow a low-cholesterol diet. Which of the following meals would be best?
- A. Hamburger, salad, and milkshake.
- B. Baked liver, green beans, and coffee.
- C. Spaghetti with tomato sauce, salad, and coffee.
- D. Fried chicken, green beans, and skim milk.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best meal option for a client with angina following a low-cholesterol diet is spaghetti with tomato sauce, salad, and coffee. This meal is lower in cholesterol content compared to the other options provided. Hamburger with salad and milkshake, baked liver with green beans and coffee, and fried chicken with green beans and skim milk are higher in cholesterol and may not be suitable for an individual with angina who needs to adhere to a low-cholesterol diet.
The healthcare provider is assessing the client's use of medications. Which of the following medications may cause a complication with the treatment plan of a client with diabetes?
- A. Aspirin
- B. Steroids
- C. Sulfonylureas
- D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Steroids. Steroids can induce hyperglycemia, complicating diabetes management by raising blood sugar levels. Aspirin is not typically associated with causing complications in diabetic clients. Sulfonylureas are oral antidiabetic medications that can lower blood sugar levels and are commonly used in diabetes management, making them beneficial rather than harmful. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are medications often prescribed to manage hypertension in diabetic clients and do not typically interfere with diabetes treatment plans.
What is a priority intervention for a patient experiencing a thyroid storm?
- A. Administering antipyretics.
- B. Cooling the patient.
- C. Administering beta-blockers.
- D. Administering antithyroid medications.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During a thyroid storm, the priority intervention is to administer antithyroid medications to reduce thyroid hormone levels quickly. These medications, such as propylthiouracil or methimazole, help inhibit the production of thyroid hormones. Administering antipyretics (choice A) may help reduce fever, but it does not address the underlying cause of the thyroid storm. Cooling the patient (choice B) may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the thyroid hormone dysregulation. Administering beta-blockers (choice C) can help manage symptoms like tachycardia and hypertension, but it does not target the root cause of the thyroid storm.
Laboratory findings indicate that a client's serum potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement.
- B. Prepare to administer a glucose-insulin-potassium replacement.
- C. Change the plan of care to include hourly urinary output measurement.
- D. Instruct the client to increase daily intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L is critically low, indicating severe hypokalemia. The immediate action the nurse should take is to inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement. Option B, preparing to administer glucose-insulin-potassium replacement, is not the first-line intervention; it may be considered in specific situations but requires a healthcare provider's prescription. Option C, changing the plan of care to include hourly urinary output measurement, is not the priority when managing critically low potassium levels. Option D, instructing the client to increase daily intake of potassium-rich foods, is not appropriate in this acute situation where immediate intervention is needed to address the dangerously low potassium level.
Which of the following lipid abnormalities is a risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis and peripheral vascular disease?
- A. Low concentration of triglycerides.
- B. High levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol.
- C. High levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol.
- D. Low levels of LDL cholesterol.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: High levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol. High levels of LDL cholesterol contribute to the development of atherosclerosis and peripheral vascular disease by being deposited in the blood vessel walls, leading to the formation of plaques that can obstruct blood flow. Choice A is incorrect as a low concentration of triglycerides is not typically associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis or PVD. Choice B is incorrect as high levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol are actually considered protective against atherosclerosis as it helps remove cholesterol from arteries. Choice D is incorrect as low levels of LDL cholesterol are not typically considered a risk factor for atherosclerosis or PVD.