Nokea
When preparing to administer parenteral acyclovir (Zovirax) to an 80-year-old patient with chronic renal failure and herpes simplex, what would the nurse expect in regard to the dose?
- A. The dose is smaller due to the herpes simplex infection.
- B. The dose is smaller based on the patient's kidney function.
- C. The dose is higher in treating genital herpes.
- D. The dose is higher if the creatinine clearance is above 4.0 mg/dL.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In patients with chronic renal failure, especially in older adults, dosages of medications excreted renally need to be adjusted based on kidney function. Acyclovir is primarily eliminated by the kidneys, so in a patient with chronic renal failure, the dose would need to be smaller to prevent drug accumulation and toxicity. Choice A is incorrect because the dose adjustment is more related to the patient's kidney function than the presence of herpes simplex. Choice C is incorrect because the type of herpes infection does not determine the dose adjustment for acyclovir. Choice D is incorrect as the creatinine clearance is a more accurate measure of kidney function compared to creatinine levels.
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A patient is being educated about the use of raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?
- A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
- B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
- C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
- D. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.' Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by decreasing bone resorption, which is the breakdown of bone, and increasing bone density. This action helps in preventing bone loss and maintaining bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone but rather prevents its breakdown. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium but rather helps in maintaining calcium levels in the bones. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines.
What is the etiology and most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis in a 22-year-old female college student?
- A. Autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells; treatment with intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids.
- B. A decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors; treatment with corticosteroids and intravenous immunoglobulins.
- C. Cerebellar lesions; surgical and immunosuppressive treatment.
- D. Excess acetylcholinesterase production; treatment with thymectomy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Myasthenia gravis is characterized by a decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors rather than autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells (Choice A), cerebellar lesions (Choice C), or excess acetylcholinesterase production (Choice D). The most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis involves corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and intravenous immunoglobulins to block the antibodies attacking acetylcholine receptors. Intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids are not primary treatments for myasthenia gravis.
Which information would indicate more teaching is needed regarding hypersensitivity reactions? Type _______ hypersensitivity reactions involve an antibody response.
- A. I
- B. II
- C. III
- D. IV
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Type IV hypersensitivity reactions involve cell-mediated immunity, not an antibody response. This question tests knowledge of hypersensitivity reactions and their classification. Type I hypersensitivity reactions involve IgE antibodies, Type II involves IgG or IgM antibodies, and Type III involves immune complex deposition. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are delayed and involve T cells, not antibodies. Therefore, if a person believes that Type IV hypersensitivity reactions involve an antibody response, more teaching is required.
What is a critical point the nurse should include in patient education for a patient prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex)?
- A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
- B. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
- C. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
- D. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The critical point the nurse should include in patient education for a patient prescribed tamoxifen is that it may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism. This is crucial information because tamoxifen is known to promote blood clot formation, and patients need to be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots to seek prompt medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as tamoxifen is not associated with decreasing the risk of osteoporosis, causing hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms, or directly causing weight gain and fluid retention.
A client with Guillain-Barr© syndrome is experiencing ascending paralysis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Monitor for signs of respiratory distress.
- B. Prepare the client for plasmapheresis.
- C. Administer analgesics for pain management.
- D. Initiate passive range-of-motion exercises.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor for signs of respiratory distress. In Guillain-Barr© syndrome, ascending paralysis can lead to respiratory muscle involvement, putting the client at risk for respiratory distress and failure. Prioritizing respiratory monitoring is crucial to ensure timely intervention if respiratory compromise occurs. Plasmapheresis (Choice B) may be indicated in some cases to remove harmful antibodies, but the priority in this situation is respiratory support. Administering analgesics (Choice C) for pain management and initiating passive range-of-motion exercises (Choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the priority when the client's respiratory status is at risk.