Nokea
When preparing to discharge a male client who has been hospitalized for an adrenal crisis, the client expresses concern about having another crisis. He tells the nurse that he wants to stay in the hospital a few more days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions
- B. Schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment
- C. Obtain a blood cortisol level before discharge
- D. Encourage the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention is to schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment. This option addresses the client's concerns and provides support for managing stress and preventing future crises, which is crucial for the client's long-term care. Administering antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions (Choice A) may not effectively address the underlying concerns. Obtaining a blood cortisol level before discharge (Choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Encouraging the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days (Choice D) is not the best course of action as it may not address the client's anxiety and could potentially lead to other issues.
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Four clients arrive on the labor and delivery unit at the same time. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. A 38-week primigravida who reports contractions occurring every 10 minutes
- B. A 39-week primigravida with a biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8
- C. A 41-week multigravida who is scheduled for induction of labor today
- D. A 36-week multigravida with a prescription for serial blood pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8 indicates potential fetal distress, necessitating immediate assessment to ensure the well-being of the fetus. The other options, while important, do not suggest an immediate threat to the fetus' health. The 38-week primigravida with contractions every 10 minutes may be in early labor, the 41-week multigravida scheduled for induction can be assessed after addressing the immediate concern, and the 36-week multigravida with serial blood pressure can be assessed after ensuring the client with potential fetal distress is stabilized.
The nurse assesses an older adult who is newly admitted to a long-term care facility. The client has dry, flaky skin and long thickened fingernails. The client has a medical history of a stroke which resulted in left-sided paralysis and dysphagia. In planning care for the client, which task should the nurse delegate to the unlicensed personnel (UAP)?
- A. Soak and file fingernails
- B. Offer fluids frequently
- C. Monitor skin elasticity
- D. Ambulate in the hallway
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Soaking and filing fingernails is a task that can be delegated to UAP. This task does not require specialized nursing skills and can be safely performed by unlicensed personnel. Offering fluids frequently, monitoring skin elasticity, and ambulating require more skilled assessments and interventions, which are responsibilities of the nurse. The client's dry, flaky skin and long thickened fingernails indicate the need for basic hygiene care, making it appropriate for delegation to unlicensed personnel.
A 46-year-old male client who had a myocardial infarction 24 hours ago comes to the nurse's station fully dressed and wanting to go home. He tells the nurse that he is feeling much better at this time. Based on this behavior, which nursing problem should the nurse formulate?
- A. Anxiety related to treatment plan
- B. Deficient knowledge of lifestyle changes
- C. Ineffective coping related to denial
- D. Decisional conflict due to stress
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Ineffective coping related to denial.' The client's behavior of wanting to go home and feeling much better shortly after a myocardial infarction indicates denial of the severity of his condition. This denial can lead to ineffective coping mechanisms, hindering his recovery and treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the client's behavior is not primarily driven by anxiety about the treatment plan, deficient knowledge of lifestyle changes, or decisional conflict due to stress, but rather by denial and ineffective coping mechanisms.
A male client with schizophrenia is jerking his neck and smacking his lips. Which finding indicates to the nurse that he is experiencing an irreversible side effect of antipsychotic agents?
- A. Cramping muscular pain
- B. Worming movements of the tongue
- C. Decreased tendon reflexes
- D. Dry oral mucous membranes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Worming movements of the tongue. Worming movements of the tongue, known as tardive dyskinesia, are an irreversible side effect of antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the tongue, lips, face, trunk, and extremities. Cramping muscular pain (Choice A) is more indicative of dystonia, an extrapyramidal side effect that can be treated effectively with antiparkinsonian medications. Decreased tendon reflexes (Choice C) are not typically associated with irreversible side effects of antipsychotic agents. Dry oral mucous membranes (Choice D) are not specific to irreversible side effects of antipsychotic medications.
A client is admitted for an exacerbation of heart failure (HF) and is being treated with diuretics for fluid volume excess. In planning nursing care, which interventions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply)
- A. Encourage oral fluid intake of 3,000 ml/day
- B. Observe for evidence of hypokalemia
- C. Teach the client how to restrict dietary sodium
- D. Monitor PTT, PT, and INR lab values
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct interventions to include when a client with heart failure is being treated with diuretics for fluid volume excess are to observe for evidence of hypokalemia. Diuretics can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring for this electrolyte imbalance is crucial. Encouraging oral fluid intake of 3,000 ml/day may exacerbate fluid volume excess in a client with heart failure. Teaching the client how to restrict dietary sodium is important in managing heart failure, but it is not directly related to the use of diuretics for fluid volume excess. Monitoring PTT, PT, and INR lab values is not typically associated with diuretic therapy for heart failure but rather with anticoagulant therapy.