When preparing to listen to a client's breath sounds, what technique should a nurse use?
- A. Ask the client to sit and lean forward slightly, with the arms resting comfortably across the lap.
- B. Listen to the right lung first, then the left lung, moving from top to bottom systematically.
- C. Ask the client to take deep breaths through the mouth.
- D. Use the diaphragm of the stethoscope, holding it firmly against the client's chest.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When preparing to listen to a client's breath sounds, a nurse should ask the client to sit and lean forward slightly, with the arms resting comfortably across the lap. The client should be instructed to breathe through the mouth a little more deeply than usual but to stop if feeling dizzy. The nurse should use the flat diaphragm end-piece of the stethoscope, holding it firmly on the chest wall. By using the diaphragm, the nurse can listen for at least one full respiration in each location, moving from side to side to compare sounds. This technique ensures a systematic and thorough assessment of lung sounds. Choice A is correct as it includes the proper positioning of the client and specifies the use of the diaphragm of the stethoscope. Choice B is incorrect as both lungs should be auscultated systematically, starting from the top and moving down. Choice C is incorrect as deep breaths, not shallow ones, are recommended for an accurate assessment of breath sounds.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which of the following vaccines are not part of the regular schedule of immunizations for children?
- A. DTaP
- B. MMR
- C. Hib
- D. Hepatitis A
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hepatitis A is not part of the standard childhood immunization schedule, unlike DTaP, MMR, and Hib, which are routinely administered.
A multigravida pregnant woman asks the nurse when she will start to feel fetal movements. Around which week of gestation does the nurse tell the mother that fetal movements are first noticed?
- A. 16 weeks
- B. 6 weeks
- C. 8 weeks
- D. 12 weeks
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fetal movements (quickening) are first noticed by multigravida pregnant women at 16 to 20 weeks of gestation and gradually increase in frequency and strength. This is when the mother typically begins to feel the baby's movements. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fetal movements are not felt as early as 6, 8, or 12 weeks of gestation. At 6 weeks, the embryo's movements are not yet strong enough to be felt by the mother. By 8 weeks, the movements are still too subtle to be perceived. At 12 weeks, although fetal movements start, they are usually not strong enough to be felt by the mother.
Which of the following vaccines is not part of the regular schedule of immunizations for children?
- A. DTaP
- B. MMR
- C. Hib
- D. hepatitis A
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is hepatitis A. DTaP, MMR, and Hib are all part of the regular schedule of immunizations for children to protect them against diseases like diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, measles, mumps, rubella, and Haemophilus influenzae type b. Hepatitis A vaccine is not included in the routine childhood immunization schedule but may be recommended in certain situations or regions where the disease is more prevalent. Hepatitis A is generally considered an optional vaccine for children but can be administered based on specific risk factors or regional guidelines.
The client provides information to a pregnant client who is experiencing nausea and vomiting about measures to relieve the discomfort. Which statement by the mother indicates the need for further information?
- A. I should eat five or six small meals a day rather than three full meals.''
- B. I need to be sure not to drink liquids with my meals.''
- C. I should keep dry crackers at my bedside and eat them before I get out of bed in the morning.''
- D. I need to avoid eating fried or greasy foods.''
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To alleviate nausea and vomiting, the client should avoid drinking liquids with meals. The client should keep dry crackers at her bedside, avoid fried foods, and eat smaller meals. Additionally, the client should eat dry crackers every 2 hours to prevent an empty stomach and avoid spicy foods and foods with strong odors, such as onion and cabbage. The incorrect choices are: A) Eating five or six small meals a day instead of three full meals is a correct recommendation. C) Keeping dry crackers at her bedside and eating them before getting out of bed in the morning is a helpful suggestion. D) Avoiding fried or greasy foods is a valid advice to alleviate nausea and vomiting.
The home health nurse has made a visit to an 85-year-old female client's home who has recently had surgery to replace her left knee. The client has been discharged from a rehab facility and has been able to walk on her own. The nurse assesses the need for teaching related to fall prevention. What should the nurse include in this teaching plan?
- A. The client should remove all scatter rugs from the floor and minimize clutter.
- B. The client should not get up and move around the house.
- C. The client does not need to install a raised toilet and grab bar because she is able to walk on her own.
- D. The client should wear a robe and socks while walking in the house.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rugs and clutter are a primary cause of falls in the home and should be eliminated if possible to decrease the risk of a fall.
Nokea