Nokea
When providing care for a patient with sickle cell crisis, what is important for the nurse to do?
- A. Monitor the patient's intake of oral and IV fluids
- B. Evaluate the effectiveness of opioid analgesics
- C. Encourage the patient to ambulate as much as tolerated
- D. Educate the patient about high-protein, high-calorie foods
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the effectiveness of opioid analgesics. In sickle cell crisis, pain is the most common symptom and is usually managed with large doses of continuous opioids. Monitoring fluid intake (Choice A) is important, but limiting fluids may not be necessary. Encouraging ambulation (Choice C) is generally good but may not be the priority during a sickle cell crisis. Educating the patient about nutrition (Choice D) is important for overall health but may not be the immediate focus during a crisis.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which statement by a patient indicates good understanding of the nurse¢â‚¬â„¢s teaching about prevention of sickle cell crisis?
- A. Home oxygen therapy is frequently used to decrease sickling.
- B. There are no effective medications that can help prevent sickling.
- C. Routine continuous dosage narcotics are prescribed to prevent a crisis.
- D. Risk for a crisis is decreased by having an annual influenza vaccination.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
The nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes a patient's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds. The nurse should notify the health care provider in anticipation of adjusting which medication?
- A. Aspirin
- B. Heparin
- C. Warfarin
- D. Erythropoietin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heparin. An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds indicates a prolonged time, which is associated with heparin administration. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, leading to an increased aPTT. Aspirin (choice A) affects platelet aggregation and does not directly impact aPTT. Warfarin (choice C) affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade and is monitored using the international normalized ratio (INR), not aPTT. Erythropoietin (choice D) is not related to coagulation parameters.
Which patient should the nurse assign as the roommate for a patient who has aplastic anemia?
- A. A patient with chronic heart failure
- B. A patient who has viral pneumonia
- C. A patient who has right leg cellulitis
- D. A patient with multiple abdominal drains
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because patients with aplastic anemia are at risk for infection due to low white blood cell production. Assigning a roommate with viral pneumonia (choice B), cellulitis (choice C), or multiple abdominal drains (choice D) could expose the patient with aplastic anemia to potential infectious agents, which could further compromise their health.
After a patient with pancytopenia undergoes a bone marrow aspiration from the left posterior iliac crest, which action would be important for the nurse to take?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
- B. Have the patient lie on the left side for 1 hour.
- C. Apply a sterile 2-inch gauze dressing to the site.
- D. Use a half-inch sterile gauze to pack the wound.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After a bone marrow aspiration, it is important to have the patient lie on the left side for 30 to 60 minutes to decrease the risk of bleeding. Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees does not directly address the risk of bleeding. Applying a sterile 2-inch gauze dressing to the site is important for wound care but does not specifically address post-procedural positioning. Using a half-inch sterile gauze to pack the wound is not necessary after a bone marrow aspiration.
A 52-year-old patient has a new diagnosis of pernicious anemia. The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching about the disorder when the patient states:
- A. I need to start eating more red meat and liver.
- B. I will stop having a glass of wine with dinner.
- C. I could choose nasal spray rather than injections of vitamin B12.
- D. I will need to take a proton pump inhibitor such as omeprazole (Prilosec).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pernicious anemia is a condition where the body can't absorb enough vitamin B12. Treatment usually involves lifelong replacement of vitamin B12. In this case, the patient understanding the disorder is correctly demonstrated by choosing nasal spray or injections of vitamin B12 for replacement therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing red meat/liver intake, stopping wine consumption, or taking a proton pump inhibitor like omeprazole do not address the primary issue of vitamin B12 absorption in pernicious anemia.