Nokea
When reviewing the morning serum laboratory results of the client with multiple myeloma, the nurse sees that the total calcium level is 13.2 mEq/L. Which interventions, if prescribed by the HCP, should the nurse plan to implement?
- A. Encourage fluid intake.
- B. Maintain strict bedrest.
- C. Administer furosemide IV.
- D. Give allopurinol by mouth.
- E. Offer foods high in calcium.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A, C: A. Adequate hydration dilutes calcium and prevents precipitates from causing renal tubular obstruction. B. The client with multiple myeloma is encouraged to ambulate because weight-bearing activities can help the bone resorb some calcium as well as prevent thrombosis that can accompany immobility. C. Furosemide (Lasix) given IV can promote the excretion of calcium when hypercalcemia exists due to multiple myeloma. D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) may be administered to reduce the hyperuricemia that can accompany multiple myeloma, not the hypercalcemia. E. The serum calcium level is elevated (normal is 9–10.5 mg/dL). Foods high in calcium would not be offered. However, limiting the intake of foods high in calcium will not make any difference to the elevated calcium level that is caused by cancer.
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The client receiving hospice care has cancer pain and requires treatment with a co-analgesic for pain control. Which medication should the nurse request an HCP to prescribe because it gives the best pain-relieving response when given with opioids?
- A. Promethazine
- B. Gabapentin
- C. Diphenhydramine
- D. Droperidol
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Promethazine (Phenergan) is given with pain medications, but it treats nausea and vomiting, not pain. Gabapentin (Neurontin) is often administered with opioid pain medications because of its efficacy in relieving neuropathic pain and its limited adverse effects. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is not a co-analgesic but an antihistamine. Droperidol (Inapsine) is not a co-analgesic but an antiemetic to control nausea and vomiting.
The 33-year-old client diagnosed with Stage IV Hodgkin’s lymphoma is at the five (5)-year remission mark. Which information should the nurse teach the client?
- A. Instruct the client to continue scheduled screenings for cancer.
- B. Discuss the need for follow-up appointments every five (5) years.
- C. Teach the client that the cancer risk is the same as for the general population.
- D. Have the client talk with the family about funeral arrangements.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Post-remission Hodgkin’s requires ongoing cancer screenings (A) due to recurrence/second cancer risk. Follow-ups are more frequent than 5 years (B), risk remains elevated (C), and funeral plans (D) are premature.
A toddler is diagnosed with sickle cell anemia. Her mother is four months pregnant with her second child. The mother asks if there is any chance the new baby will have sickle cell anemia. She says that neither she nor her husband has sickle cell anemia. What is the best response for the nurse to make?
- A. No. Sickle cell anemia is not inherited.'
- B. Yes. The new baby will also have sickle cell anemia.'
- C. There is a 25% chance that each child you have will have the disease.'
- D. Because neither of you has the disease, another child will not have it. You should ask your physician.'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sickle cell anemia is autosomal recessive. If both parents are carriers (trait), there is a 25% chance each child will have the disease.
The client diagnosed with leukemia is being admitted for an induction course of chemotherapy. Which laboratory values indicate a diagnosis of leukemia?
- A. A left shift in the white blood cell (WBC) count differential.
- B. A large number of WBCs that decreases after the administration of antibiotics.
- C. An abnormally low hemoglobin (Hb) and hematocrit (Hct) level.
- D. Red blood cells (RBCs) that are larger than normal.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Leukemia causes bone marrow suppression, leading to low Hb/Hct (C). Left shift (A) indicates infection, antibiotic response (B) suggests infection, and large RBCs (D) indicate megaloblastic anemia.
The client hospitalized with cervical cancer is receiving radiation therapy via a temporary radioactive cervical implant. Which nursing actions would be appropriate for this client?
- A. Minimize anxiety and confusion by telling the client the reason for the time and distance limitations.
- B. Utilize the unit’s common film badge that indicates the cumulative radiation exposure while caring for the client.
- C. Organize cares to limit the amount of time spent in direct contact with the client receiving internal radiation.
- D. Use shielding if delivering care within close proximity to the client, such as checking placement of the implant.
- E. Encourage frequent oral care with warm saline rinses to help with irritation of oral mucosa.
Correct Answer: A, C, D
Rationale: A. Safety measures for caring for someone undergoing internal radiation therapy include limiting time, distance, and shielding. It would be important to make the client aware of the time and distance limitations to help ease anxiety. B. A personal, not shared, film badge should be worn so cumulative radiation exposure can be measured accurately. C. Organizing care would be appropriate in order to limit the exposure to radiation. D. Shielding is important for keeping caregivers safe from potential radiation exposure. E. The implant is placed in the vaginal canal and has no impact on oral mucosa.