When starting amitriptyline, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Urinary retention
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Dry cough
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a client starts taking amitriptyline, an important adverse effect to monitor for is urinary retention. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that can cause anticholinergic effects, including urinary retention. It is crucial to educate the client on recognizing and reporting this adverse effect to their healthcare provider.
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A client with type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is starting Repaglinide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication?
- A. I'll take this medicine with my meals.
- B. I'll take this medicine 30 minutes before I eat.
- C. I'll take this medicine just before I go to bed.
- D. I'll take this medicine as soon as I wake up in the morning.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. To ensure the insulin is available when food is digested, the client should take this medication 30 minutes before each meal. This timing aligns the medication with the expected postprandial rise in blood glucose levels, optimizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels.
A client has been prescribed Aspirin for prevention of cardiovascular disease. Which of the following findings indicates the medication is effective?
- A. The client has a decrease in troponin levels.
- B. The client has a regular heart rhythm.
- C. The client experiences a decrease in episodes of angina.
- D. The client's blood pressure remains stable.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A decrease in episodes of angina indicates that Aspirin is effectively preventing the formation of clots that could lead to cardiovascular events. Angina is chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, usually due to coronary artery disease. Aspirin works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, thereby reducing the risk of clot formation in the arteries. Improvement in angina symptoms suggests that the medication is successfully preventing clot-related complications in the cardiovascular system. Monitoring and recognizing a decrease in angina episodes can be a valuable indicator of the medication's efficacy in preventing cardiovascular events.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?
- A. 8 mL
- B. 10 mL
- C. 6 mL
- D. 12 mL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A client has been taking Sertraline for the past 2 days. Which of the following assessment findings should alert the nurse to the possibility that the client is developing Serotonin syndrome?
- A. Bruising
- B. Fever
- C. Abdominal pain
- D. Rash
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fever is a key symptom of serotonin syndrome, a potentially serious condition that can occur with the use of SSRIs like Sertraline. Serotonin syndrome is characterized by excessive levels of serotonin in the body, leading to symptoms such as fever, agitation, confusion, tremors, and sweating. If a client on Sertraline presents with fever, the nurse should consider the possibility of serotonin syndrome and take appropriate actions such as notifying the healthcare provider and monitoring the client closely.
When caring for a school-age child with a new prescription for Atomoxetine, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Kidney toxicity
- B. Liver damage
- C. Seizure activity
- D. Adrenal insufficiency
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.