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When teaching a new mother how to use a bulb syringe to suction her newborn's secretions, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Insert the syringe tip after compressing the bulb.
- B. Suction each nare before suctioning the mouth.
- C. Insert the tip of the syringe at the center of the newborn's mouth.
- D. Stop suctioning when the newborn's cry sounds clear.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it is important to stop suctioning when the newborn's cry sounds clear to avoid causing unnecessary discomfort or injury. Step 1: Gently compress the bulb syringe. Step 2: Insert the tip into the nostril, not the mouth. Step 3: Release the bulb to suction out the secretions. Step 4: Repeat in the other nostril. Incorrect choices: A is incorrect because you should insert the syringe tip before compressing the bulb. B is incorrect as you should suction the mouth before the nose. C is incorrect as you should not insert the syringe tip in the center of the mouth.
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When caring for clients in a prenatal clinic, a nurse should report which client's weight gain to the provider?
- A. 1.8 kg (4 lb) weight gain in the first trimester
- B. 3.6 kg (8 lb) weight gain in the first trimester
- C. 6.8 kg (15 lb) weight gain in the second trimester
- D. 11.3 kg (25 lb) weight gain in the third trimester
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 3.6 kg (8 lb) weight gain in the first trimester. This amount of weight gain in the first trimester is higher than the recommended range of 1.1-4.5 lbs. It could indicate potential issues such as gestational diabetes or preeclampsia. Choices A, C, and D fall within or closer to the expected weight gain ranges for each trimester, making them less concerning. Reporting excessive weight gain early allows for timely intervention and monitoring.
A healthcare provider is discussing the differences between true labor and false labor with a group of expectant parents. Which of the following characteristics should the healthcare provider include when discussing true labor?
- A. Contractions become stronger with walking.
- B. Discomfort can be relieved with a back massage.
- C. Contractions become irregular with a change in activity.
- D. Discomfort is felt above the umbilicus.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Contractions become stronger with walking. This is because true labor is characterized by contractions that consistently increase in intensity and frequency, which is often enhanced by physical activity like walking. Contractions in false labor do not typically intensify with movement. Discomfort in true labor is usually not easily relieved by a back massage (B) and contractions in true labor remain regular even with changes in activity (C). Discomfort in true labor is typically felt in the lower abdomen and back, not above the umbilicus (D).
During preterm labor, a client is scheduled for an amniocentesis. The nurse should review which of the following tests to assess fetal lung maturity?
- A. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
- B. Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio
- C. Kleihauer-Betke test
- D. Indirect Coombs' test
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio. This test is used to assess fetal lung maturity by determining the ratio of two substances present in amniotic fluid. An L/S ratio of 2:1 or higher indicates mature fetal lungs, reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants.
A: Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is used to screen for neural tube defects, not fetal lung maturity.
C: Kleihauer-Betke test is used to detect fetal-maternal hemorrhage.
D: Indirect Coombs' test is used to detect antibodies in maternal blood that may attack fetal red blood cells, not assess fetal lung maturity.
In summary, the L/S ratio test is the most appropriate choice to assess fetal lung maturity during preterm labor, as it directly correlates with the development of the fetal lungs.
A client is postpartum and has idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased platelet count
- B. Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
- C. Decreased megakaryocytes
- D. Increased WBC
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: In idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), there is a decreased platelet count due to immune-mediated destruction of platelets.
Step 2: This leads to an increased risk of bleeding and bruising in the postpartum client.
Step 3: Other choices are incorrect because in ITP, there is no increase in ESR or WBC. Also, megakaryocytes may be normal or increased due to compensatory production.
Which of the following medications should the provider prescribe for a client with gonorrhea?
- A. Ceftriaxone
- B. Fluconazole
- C. Metronidazole
- D. Zidovudine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ceftriaxone. It is the recommended first-line treatment for gonorrhea due to increasing resistance to other antibiotics. Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin that effectively treats gonorrhea. Fluconazole (B) is used for fungal infections, not bacterial. Metronidazole (C) is used for anaerobic bacterial infections like bacterial vaginosis, not gonorrhea. Zidovudine (D) is used to treat HIV, not gonorrhea. Therefore, A is the correct choice for treating gonorrhea effectively.