Nokea
When the client asks the nurse about the viability of the ovum after ovulation, the nurse correctly explains that after ovulation, the ovum remains alive for how many hours?
- A. 2 hours
- B. 24 hours
- C. 48 hours
- D. 72 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The ovum remains viable for approximately 24 hours after ovulation, during which it can be fertilized by sperm.
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While assessing the prenatal client, the nurse found a number of concerning problems. Place the concerning problems in the sequence that they should be addressed by the nurse.
- A. Currently bleeding and cramping
- B. Previous varicella infection
- C. Currently using tobacco
- D. Has intense pelvic pain
Correct Answer: D,A,C,B
Rationale: Has intense pelvic pain is most concerning and should be addressed first by the nurse. It could be a symptom of a serious medical condition, such as a miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, or appendicitis. This symptom represents a possible pathology that could warrant immediate surgical intervention. Currently bleeding and cramping should be addressed next. It could be associated with the pelvic pain and could be a symptom of a serious medical condition, such as a miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy. Currently using tobacco can put the client at risk for multiple adverse outcomes and should be addressed, although it is not an immediately concerning factor. Previous varicella infection is important to document but poses no risk to the client or the fetus, so it is the least important to address.
The nurse monitors which vital sign closely in a client with gestational diabetes?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Respiratory rate
- C. Pulse rate
- D. Temperature
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Blood pressure monitoring is crucial in gestational diabetes, as it increases the risk of preeclampsia.
The nurse observes the postpartum multiparous client rubbing her abdomen. When asked if she is having pain, the client says, “It feels like menstrual cramps.” Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Offer a warm blanket for her to place on her abdomen.
- B. Encourage her to lie on her stomach until the cramps stop.
- C. Instruct the client to avoid ambulation while having pain.
- D. Check her lochia flow; pain sometimes precedes hemorrhage.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Heat application to the abdomen should be avoided; it may cause uterine muscle relaxation. Multiparous women frequently experience intermittent uterine contractions called afterpains. Lying in a prone position applies pressure to the uterus, stimulating continuous uterine contraction. When the uterus maintains a state of contraction, the afterpains will cease. Ambulation has been shown to decrease muscle pain and should not be avoided. Afterpains are not a symptom of potential postpartum hemorrhage.
The client delivered a healthy newborn 4 hours ago after being induced with oxytocin. While being assisted to the bathroom to void for the first time after delivery, the client tells the nurse that she doesn’t feel a need to urinate. Which explanation should the nurse provide when the client expresses surprise after voiding 900 mL of urine?
- A. “A decreased sensation of bladder filling is normal after childbirth.”
- B. “The oxytocin you received in labor makes it difficult to feel voiding.”
- C. “You probably didn’t empty completely. I will need to scan your bladder.”
- D. “Your bladder capacity is large; you likely won’t void again for 6—8 hours.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should explain about the decreased sensation of bladder filling after childbirth. It is not uncommon for the postpartum client to have increased bladder capacity, decreased sensitivity to fluid pressure, and a decreased sensation of bladder filling. Oxytocin (Pitocin) is not expected to cause a change in bladder sensation, but it does have an antidiuretic effect. There is no indication that the client didn’t completely empty; a volume of 900 mL is a large amount. The postpartum client is at risk for bladder overdistention and should be encouraged to void every 2 to 4 hours.
The nurse is reviewing the medication history of the client during preconception counseling. The client reports taking isotretinoin for acne. Which is the nurse’s best response?
- A. “Stop taking isotretinoin now! It can cause serious birth defects if you become pregnant.”
- B. “You need to be on some type of birth control right now. Getting pregnant is not an option.”
- C. “Talk with your HCP about changing isotretinoin before you consider becoming pregnant.”
- D. “Once you are off of isotretinoin for treating acne, you can then safely become pregnant.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best response is to have the client consult her HCP so another medication can be prescribed. This response indicates that isotretinoin (Accutane) is not safe but that alternative medications can be prescribed. Responding to the client emphatically can create anxiety and fear. Telling the client that getting pregnant is not an option is a paternal response and does not facilitate open communication. Clients must wait one month after cessation of isotretinoin before becoming pregnant.