Nokea
When the nurse is reviewing a patient’s daily laboratory test results, which of the ff. electrolyte imbalances should the nurse recognize as predisposing the patient to digoxin toxicity?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Digoxin toxicity can be potentiated by hypokalemia due to the risk of enhanced cardiac toxicity.
2. Hypokalemia can lead to increased sensitivity of cardiac cells to digoxin.
3. Low potassium levels can disrupt the sodium-potassium ATPase pump, enhancing digoxin's effects.
4. The nurse should recognize hypokalemia as a predisposing factor for digoxin toxicity.
Summary:
A: Hypokalemia is the correct answer as it enhances digoxin toxicity by affecting cardiac function.
B: Hyponatremia does not directly predispose to digoxin toxicity.
C: Hyperkalemia is not a predisposing factor and can actually counteract digoxin's effects.
D: Hypernatremia is not directly related to digoxin toxicity.
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While managing a client after a medical or surgical procedure for bladder stones, for what rise in the temperature should the nurse notify the physician?
- A. When the temperature rises above 101F
- B. When the temperature rises above 100F
- C. When the temperature rises above 102F
- D. When the temperature rises above 99F
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: When the temperature rises above 102F. A temperature rise above 102F is concerning as it may indicate infection or other complications post-procedure. This higher threshold helps in early detection and timely intervention. Choices A and B set lower thresholds, potentially delaying necessary medical attention. Choice D is below the typical threshold for fever and would not typically warrant physician notification in this context.
A nurse caring for a client admitted to the intensive care unit with a stroke assesses the client’s vital signs, pupils, and orientation every few minutes. The nurse is performing which type of assessment?
- A. Initial assessment
- B. Focused assessment
- C. Time-lapsed reassessment
- D. Emergency assessment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Focused assessment. In this scenario, the nurse is continuously monitoring specific aspects such as vital signs, pupils, and orientation at regular intervals, which is characteristic of a focused assessment. This type of assessment allows the nurse to gather specific data related to the client's condition and respond promptly to any changes.
A: Initial assessment is conducted upon admission to establish baseline data.
C: Time-lapsed reassessment involves comparing current data to previous assessments over a longer period.
D: Emergency assessment is performed in urgent situations to quickly identify life-threatening issues.
By systematically assessing the client's vital signs, pupils, and orientation at frequent intervals, the nurse can provide timely and appropriate care in the intensive care unit setting.
A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is prescribed zidovudine (azidothymidine, AZT [retrovir]), 200mg PO every 4 hours. When teaching the client about this drug, the nurse should provide which instruction?
- A. “Take zidovudine with meals.”
- B. “Take zidovudine on an empty stomach.”
- C. “Take zidovudine every 4 hours around the clock.”
- D. “Take over-the-counter(OTC) drugs to treat minor adverse reactions.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Take zidovudine every 4 hours around the clock." Zidovudine is an antiretroviral medication used to treat HIV/AIDS. It is crucial for the client to adhere to the prescribed dosing schedule to maintain therapeutic blood levels. Taking the medication every 4 hours around the clock helps to ensure consistent levels in the body, maximizing its efficacy. Taking it with meals (choice A) or on an empty stomach (choice B) is not specifically indicated for zidovudine. Choice D is incorrect as taking OTC drugs without consulting a healthcare provider can lead to drug interactions or adverse effects. Hence, choice C is the most appropriate instruction to ensure the client benefits from the medication.
. During the first 24 hours after a client is diagnosed with Addisonian crisis, which of the following should the nurse perform frequently?
- A. Weigh the client.
- B. Administer oral hydrocortisone.
- C. Test urine for ketones.
- D. Assess vital signs.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, assess vital signs, as it is crucial to monitor the client's hemodynamic stability and response to treatment during the critical initial 24 hours of Addisonian crisis. Vital signs such as blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate provide valuable information about the client's condition and response to therapy. Weighing the client (choice A) and testing urine for ketones (choice C) may be important but not as immediately critical as monitoring vital signs. Administering oral hydrocortisone (choice B) is essential for treatment but does not require frequent administration within the first 24 hours.
A patient with a new diagnosis of lung cancer decides to have radiation therapy. Which of the ff. expectations of this treatment is most appropriate?
- A. Complete cure of the cancer
- B. Prevention of the need for oxygen
- C. Increased comfort
- D. Prevention of cancer spread
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased comfort. Radiation therapy for lung cancer aims to alleviate symptoms, reduce pain, and improve quality of life. It is not typically used as a curative treatment like surgery or chemotherapy (A). It does not prevent the need for oxygen (B), as lung cancer can still affect lung function. While radiation therapy may help control the growth of cancer cells, it is not always effective in preventing cancer spread (D). Therefore, the most appropriate expectation of radiation therapy for lung cancer is increased comfort for the patient.