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The nurse is assessing a patient with a new arteriovenous fistula, but does not hear a bruit or feel a thrill. Pulses distal to the fistula are not palpable. The nurse should
- A. reassess the patient in an hour.
- B. raise the arm above the level of the patient’s heart.
- C. notify the provider immediately.
- D. apply warm packs to the fistula site and reassess.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: notify the provider immediately. The absence of bruit, thrill, and palpable distal pulses in a new arteriovenous fistula suggests potential complications like thrombosis or stenosis, requiring urgent intervention. Notifying the provider promptly allows for timely assessment and appropriate management to prevent further complications.
Summary:
A: Reassessing the patient in an hour may delay necessary intervention for a potentially serious issue.
B: Raising the arm above the level of the patient’s heart does not address the underlying problem and may not improve the situation.
D: Applying warm packs to the fistula site is not the appropriate intervention for the absence of bruit and thrill and may not address the underlying cause.
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The critical care environment is stressful to the patient. Which interventions assist in reducing this stress? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Adjust lighting to promote normal sleep-wake cycles.
- B. Provide clocks, calendars, and personal photos in the p atient’s room.
- C. Talk to the patient about other patients you are caring for on the unit.
- D. Tell the patient the day and time when you are providi ng routine nursing interventions.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Adjust lighting to promote normal sleep-wake cycles.
Rationale:
1. Adjusting lighting can help regulate the patient's circadian rhythm, promoting better sleep and reducing stress.
2. Normal sleep-wake cycles are crucial for overall well-being and healing in a critical care setting.
3. Proper lighting can also create a more calming environment for the patient.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B. Providing clocks, calendars, and personal photos can be overwhelming for a stressed patient.
C. Talking about other patients may increase anxiety and breach patient confidentiality.
D. Telling the day and time of routine interventions may disrupt the patient's sense of time and add to stress.
The nurse calculates the PaO /FiO ratio for the following values: PaO is 78 mm Hg; FiO is 2 2 2 2 6 (60%). What is the outcome and the relationship to the ARDS diagnosing criteria?
- A. 46.8; meets criteria for ARDS
- B. 130; meets criteria for ARDS
- C. 468; normal lung function
- D. Not enough data to compute the ratio
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 46.8; meets criteria for ARDS. The PaO /FiO ratio is calculated by dividing the arterial oxygen partial pressure (PaO) by the fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO). In this case, PaO is 78 mm Hg and FiO is 0.6 (60%). Therefore, the calculation would be 78/0.6 = 130. This value is less than 300, which is indicative of ARDS according to the Berlin criteria. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not align with the criteria for ARDS. Choice D is incorrect because the data provided is sufficient to compute the ratio.
The nurse is caring for a patient who is being evaluated clianbiircba.clolmy/ tfeostr brain death by a primary care provider. Which assessment findings by the nurse sup port brain death?
- A. Absence of a corneal reflex
- B. Unequal, reactive pupils
- C. Withdrawal from painful stimuli
- D. Core temperature of 100.8° F
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, absence of a corneal reflex, because in brain death, all brainstem reflexes, including the corneal reflex, are absent. This indicates complete loss of brain function. Choice B, unequal reactive pupils, is incorrect as it suggests some level of brainstem function. Choice C, withdrawal from painful stimuli, is also incorrect as it is a spinal reflex and can occur even in the absence of brain function. Choice D, core temperature of 100.8° F, is irrelevant to assessing brain death.
What is the primary mode of action of a neuromuscular bl ocking agent?
- A. Analgesia
- B. Anticonvulsant
- C. Paralysis
- D. Sedation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Paralysis. Neuromuscular blocking agents work by blocking the transmission of nerve impulses at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle paralysis. This paralysis helps facilitate intubation, surgical procedures, and mechanical ventilation.
A: Analgesia - Neuromuscular blocking agents do not provide pain relief; they primarily induce muscle paralysis without affecting pain sensation.
B: Anticonvulsant - Neuromuscular blocking agents do not prevent or treat seizures; their mechanism of action is not related to controlling convulsions.
D: Sedation - Neuromuscular blocking agents do not induce sedation; they specifically target the neuromuscular junction to cause muscle paralysis.
When planning the response to the potential use of smallpox as an agent of terrorism, the emergency department (ED) nurse manager will plan to obtain adequate quantities of:
- A. Vaccine.
- B. Atropine.
- C. Antibiotics.
- D. Whole blood.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vaccine. Smallpox is a contagious and potentially deadly disease caused by the variola virus. The smallpox vaccine is the most effective way to prevent and control the spread of smallpox. By obtaining adequate quantities of the smallpox vaccine, the ED nurse manager can protect healthcare workers and the public from contracting the virus in case of a smallpox bioterrorism event. Atropine (B) is used to treat certain types of nerve agent poisoning, not smallpox. Antibiotics (C) are ineffective against viruses like smallpox. Whole blood (D) is not specifically needed for smallpox treatment.