Nokea
When the nurse is teaching a client to self-administer nose drops, which head position is appropriate?
- A. Bending the head forward, then instilling the drops
- B. Pushing the nose laterally, then instilling the drops
- C. Tilting the head backward, then instilling the drops
- D. Turning the head to the side, then instilling the drops
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tilting the head backward allows nose drops to reach the nasal passages effectively by gravity, ensuring proper distribution of the medication.
You may also like to solve these questions
An adult has a chest drainage system. Several hours after the chest tube was inserted, the nurse observes that there is no bubbling in the water seal chamber. What is the most likely reason for the absence of bubbling?
- A. The client's lungs have reexpanded.
- B. There is an obstruction in the tubing coming from the client.
- C. There is a mechanical problem in the pump.
- D. Air is leaking into the drainage apparatus.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: No bubbling in the water seal chamber typically indicates lung reexpansion, as air is no longer leaking from the lung into the pleural space.
Which finding best indicates that the sponge bath is having a therapeutic effect on the client?
- A. The client feels more comfortable.
- B. The client begins sweating profusely.
- C. The client's temperature is 101°F (38.3°C).
- D. The client's skin is flushed.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A reduced temperature (101°F) directly indicates the sponge bath is effectively lowering the client's fever.
The client is getting out of bed and becomes very anxious and has a feeling of impending doom. The nurse thinks the client may be experiencing a pulmonary embolism. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer oxygen 10 L via nasal cannula.
- B. Place the client in high Fowler's position.
- C. Obtain a STAT pulse oximeter reading.
- D. Auscultate the client's lung sounds.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: High Fowler’s position (B) improves breathing in suspected PE, a priority. Oxygen (A), SpO2 (C), and lung sounds (D) follow to support and assess.
A patient is receiving continuous IV Heparin for anticoagulation therapy for the treatment of a DVT. In order for this medication to have a therapeutic effect on the patient, the aPTT should be?
- A. 0.5-2.5 times the normal value range
- B. 2-3 times the normal value range
- C. 1.5-2.5 times the normal value range
- D. 1-3.5 times the normal value range
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An aPTT should be 1.5-2.5 times the normal value range for Heparin to achieve a therapeutic effect in a patient to prevent blood clots. If the aPTT is too low, blood clots can form. If the aPTT is too high, bleeding can occur.
You are providing care to a patient with COPD who is receiving medical treatment for exacerbation. The patient has a history of diabetes, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia. The patient is experiencing extreme hyperglycemia and bruising. Which medication ordered for this patient can cause hyperglycemia and bruising?
- A. Prednisone
- B. Atrovent
- C. Flagyl
- D. Levaquin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Prednisone , a corticosteroid, commonly causes hyperglycemia and easy bruising as side effects. Atrovent , Flagyl , and Levaquin are not typically associated with these effects.