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Which action indicates a nurse is using critical thinking for implementation of nursing care to patients?
- A. Determines whether an intervention is correct and appropriate for the given situation
- B. Reads over the steps and performs a procedure despite lack of clinical competency
- C. Establishes goals for a particular patient without assessment
- D. Evaluates the effectiveness of interventions
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because determining whether an intervention is correct and appropriate for the given situation indicates critical thinking in nursing care implementation. This involves assessing the patient's needs, analyzing the situation, and using evidence-based practice to make informed decisions. This process ensures that interventions are tailored to individual patient needs and promotes safe and effective care delivery.
Option B is incorrect because performing a procedure without clinical competency can jeopardize patient safety and is not an example of critical thinking. Option C is incorrect as establishing goals without assessment lacks a foundation in data and may lead to inappropriate care planning. Option D is incorrect as evaluating the effectiveness of interventions is a part of the nursing process but does not specifically demonstrate critical thinking in implementation.
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A pregnant client requires immediate but temporary protection from chickenpox. Which type of immunization would be required?
- A. Naturally acquired active immunization
- B. Artificially acquired passive
- C. Artificially acquired active immunization immunization
- D. Passive immunization
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Passive immunization. This involves administering pre-formed antibodies to provide immediate protection. In the case of a pregnant client needing temporary protection from chickenpox, passive immunization is necessary as it offers immediate immunity without stimulating the client's immune system.
- A (Naturally acquired active immunization): This involves exposure to the pathogen and the body producing its antibodies, which takes time and is not suitable for immediate protection.
- B (Artificially acquired passive immunization): This option doesn't involve providing pre-formed antibodies, which are needed for immediate protection.
- C (Artificially acquired active immunization): This method requires time for the body to develop its immunity, not providing immediate protection as needed in this scenario.
Blood and fluid loss from frequent diarrhea may cause hypovolemia and you can quickly assess volume depletion in Miss CC by:
- A. Measuring the quantity and specific gravity of her urine output
- B. Taking her blood pressure
- C. Comparing the patient’s present weight with her last weight
- D. Administering the oral water test
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Comparing the patient’s present weight with her last weight. This is the most direct and reliable method to assess volume depletion due to fluid loss. By comparing the patient's current weight with her last weight, you can easily determine if there has been a significant decrease in weight indicating fluid loss and potential hypovolemia.
Explanation of why other choices are incorrect:
A: Measuring the quantity and specific gravity of her urine output - This method may provide some information about hydration status, but it is not as direct or reliable as comparing weight changes.
B: Taking her blood pressure - While blood pressure can indicate hypovolemia, it may not provide immediate insight into volume depletion caused by diarrhea.
D: Administering the oral water test - This test is not commonly used to assess volume depletion and may not be as effective or quick as comparing weight changes.
A 34 year old client is diagnosed with AIDS. His pharmacologic management includes zidovudine (AZT). During a home visit, the client states, “I don’t understand how this medication works. Will it stop the infection?” What is the nurse’s best response?
- A. The medication helps to slow the disease process, but it won’t cure or stop it totally
- B. The medication blocks reverse transcriptase, the enzyme required fro HIV replication
- C. Don’t you know? There aren’t medication to stop or cure HIV
- D. No. it won’t stop the infection. In fact, sometimes the HIV can become immune to the drug itself
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should explain that zidovudine (AZT) works by blocking reverse transcriptase, the enzyme necessary for HIV replication. This is the key mechanism of action for AZT in managing HIV.
Choice A is incorrect because it provides a partial truth - it does slow the disease process but does not provide the mechanism of action. Choice C is incorrect as it provides incorrect information that there are no medications to stop or cure HIV, which is not true. Choice D is incorrect as it provides misleading information about the drug becoming immune to HIV, which is not the primary concern in this context.
A patient is being given Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the ff. is a usual adult daily dosage of digoxin (Lanoxin)?
- A. 0.005 mg
- B. 0.025 mg
- C. 0.25 mg
- D. 2.5 mg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
C: 0.25 mg is the correct daily dosage of Digoxin for adults with heart failure. This dosage is within the usual range of 0.125-0.25 mg. It helps improve heart function and manage heart failure symptoms.
A: 0.005 mg is too low and ineffective.
B: 0.025 mg is also too low for therapeutic effect.
D: 2.5 mg is too high and may lead to toxicity in most adult patients.
Mrs. Go a 75-year old female suffered a fdall and is diagnosed with a herniated nucleus pulposus at the C4-C5 interspace, and a second st the C5-C6 interspace.Which of the following findings would the nurse expect to discover during the assessment?
- A. constant, throbbing headaches
- B. clonus in the lower extremities
- C. Numbness of the face
- D. pain in the scapular region
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: pain in the scapular region. This is because a herniated nucleus pulposus at the C4-C5 and C5-C6 interspaces typically results in pain radiating from the neck to the scapular region due to nerve compression at those levels. The other choices are incorrect as constant, throbbing headaches are not typically associated with this specific diagnosis, clonus in the lower extremities is more indicative of lower spinal cord involvement, and numbness of the face is not a common symptom of herniated discs at these levels.