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Which action should be taken to assess for analgesic tolerance in a client who is unable to communicate?
- A. Review the client's laboratory values for changes in peak and trough levels of the analgesic
- B. Prolong the interval between analgesic medication doses and monitor the client's vital signs
- C. Observe the client for the presence of pain behaviors before the next analgesic dose is due
- D. Ask family members to report behaviors suggesting that the client's pain has returned
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In clients who are unable to communicate, observing for pain behaviors is crucial in assessing analgesic tolerance. Changes in pain behaviors can indicate if the current analgesic regimen is effective or if tolerance has developed. Therefore, closely observing the client for pain behaviors before the next analgesic dose helps healthcare providers evaluate the client's response to pain management.
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When a client with hepatic encephalopathy is receiving lactulose, which parameter is essential to monitor for a response to the drug?
- A. Serum hepatic enzymes
- B. Fingerstick glucose
- C. Stool color and character
- D. Serum electrolytes and ammonia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In hepatic encephalopathy, the goal of lactulose therapy is to reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting its excretion in the stool. Therefore, monitoring serum electrolytes and ammonia levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of lactulose in lowering ammonia levels and improving the client's condition.
A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed rivaroxaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Increased risk of bleeding
- B. Decreased risk of bleeding
- C. Increased risk of infection
- D. Decreased risk of infection
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed rivaroxaban, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding as rivaroxaban increases the risk of bleeding. Common adverse effects of rivaroxaban include bleeding events, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or blood in the urine or stool. It is crucial for the nurse to assess for these signs to prevent complications and ensure the client's safety.
How should the healthcare provider schedule the administering of propylthiouracil (PTU)?
- A. Offer both drugs together with a meal
- B. Give parental dose once every 24 hours
- C. Schedule both medications at bedtime
- D. Administer iodine one hour before PTU
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Administering iodine one hour before PTU is crucial to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness of PTU. This timing helps optimize the therapeutic benefits of PTU by allowing it to be absorbed efficiently without interference from iodine, ultimately leading to better treatment outcomes for the patient.
A client is prescribed methylprednisolone for an allergic reaction. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect of this medication?
- A. Nausea and vomiting
- B. Weight gain
- C. Insomnia
- D. Increased appetite
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A 6-month-old infant is prescribed digoxin for the treatment of congestive heart failure. Which observation by the practical nurse (PN) warrants immediate intervention for signs of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Apical heart rate of 60 beats/min
- B. Sweating across the forehead
- C. Poor sucking effort
- D. Respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A heart rate of 60 beats/min for a 6-month-old infant warrants immediate intervention as it falls below the normal range. The normal heart rate for a 6-month-old is 80 to 150 beats/min when awake, and a rate of 70 beats/min while sleeping is considered within normal limits. Bradycardia (heart rate <60 beats/min) in infants can be a sign of digoxin toxicity, necessitating prompt evaluation and intervention to prevent adverse effects.