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Which assessment finding indicates a client's readiness to leave the nursing unit for a bronchoscopy?
- A. Client denies allergies to contrast media.
- B. Skin prep to insertion site completed.
- C. On-call sedation administered.
- D. Oxygen at 2 L/minute via nasal cannula.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Option C, on-call sedation administered, is the correct answer because sedation is essential for bronchoscopy to ensure the client is comfortable and cooperative during the procedure. Sedation helps reduce anxiety and discomfort, making the procedure more tolerable. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly indicate readiness for the procedure. Denying allergies to contrast media (A) is important but not specific to bronchoscopy readiness. Skin prep completion (B) is part of the pre-procedure preparation but does not confirm readiness. Oxygen administration (D) is a routine care measure and does not indicate readiness for bronchoscopy.
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A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed metformin (Glucophage). Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Limit your fluid intake while on this medication.
- C. Monitor your blood glucose levels regularly.
- D. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor your blood glucose levels regularly. This is important because metformin helps lower blood sugar levels, and monitoring glucose levels helps ensure the medication is effective and the client is not experiencing hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia. Option A is incorrect because metformin should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Option B is incorrect as metformin does not typically require fluid restriction. Option D is incorrect as metformin does not affect potassium levels. Regularly monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial for managing type 2 diabetes effectively.
In evaluating a 10-year-old child with meningitis suspected of having diabetes insipidus, which finding is indicative of diabetes insipidus?
- A. Decreased urine specific gravity.
- B. Elevated urine glucose.
- C. Decreased serum potassium.
- D. Increased serum sodium.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased urine specific gravity. In diabetes insipidus, there is an inability to concentrate urine, leading to decreased urine specific gravity. This is due to the decreased production or action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). As a result, the kidneys are unable to reabsorb water efficiently, causing dilute urine with low specific gravity.
Incorrect choices:
B: Elevated urine glucose is more indicative of diabetes mellitus, not diabetes insipidus.
C: Decreased serum potassium is not a typical finding in diabetes insipidus.
D: Increased serum sodium can occur due to dehydration from excessive urination in diabetes insipidus, but it is not directly indicative of the condition.
Which client's laboratory value requires immediate intervention by a nurse?
- A. A client with GI bleeding who is receiving a blood transfusion and has a hemoglobin of 7 grams.
- B. A client with pancreatitis who has a fasting glucose of 190 mg/dl today and had 160 mg/dl yesterday.
- C. A client with hepatitis who is jaundiced and has a bilirubin level that is 4 times the normal value.
- D. A client with cancer who has an absolute neutrophil count < 500 today and had 2,000 yesterday.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client with an absolute neutrophil count < 500 is at high risk for serious infections due to severe neutropenia. Neutrophils are crucial for fighting infections, and a low count puts the client at immediate risk. Therefore, intervention is required to prevent life-threatening complications.
Choice A: A hemoglobin of 7 grams in a client with GI bleeding receiving a blood transfusion indicates anemia, but it does not require immediate intervention unless the client is symptomatic.
Choice B: A fasting glucose of 190 mg/dl in a client with pancreatitis is elevated but does not require immediate intervention unless the client is symptomatic or experiencing complications.
Choice C: A bilirubin level 4 times the normal value in a jaundiced client with hepatitis is concerning but does not require immediate intervention unless there are signs of severe liver dysfunction or complications.
What instruction should be provided to a client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) who is prescribed nitroglycerin?
- A. Take nitroglycerin with food to avoid stomach upset.
- B. Store nitroglycerin tablets in a dark, glass container.
- C. Swallow nitroglycerin tablets whole without chewing.
- D. Discontinue the medication if a headache occurs.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because nitroglycerin tablets should be stored in a dark, glass container to protect them from light and moisture, which could decrease their effectiveness. Storing them in any other container could lead to degradation of the medication.
Choice A is incorrect because nitroglycerin should be taken sublingually, not with food. Choice C is incorrect because nitroglycerin should be placed under the tongue to be absorbed quickly, not swallowed whole. Choice D is incorrect because experiencing a headache is a common side effect of nitroglycerin and does not indicate that the medication should be discontinued.
A client is admitted with suspected meningitis. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Headache.
- B. Fever.
- C. Nuchal rigidity.
- D. Seizures.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Seizures. Seizures in a patient with suspected meningitis indicate increased intracranial pressure, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention to prevent brain damage or herniation. Headache (A), fever (B), and nuchal rigidity (C) are common symptoms of meningitis but do not pose an immediate threat to life like seizures do. Addressing the seizures first is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure the patient's safety.