Nokea
Which assessment finding is most indicative of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client's right leg?
- A. Dorsiflexes the right foot and left foot on command
- B. A 3 by 5 cm ecchymosis area on the right calf
- C. Right calf is 3 cm larger in circumference than the left calf
- D. Bilateral lower extremities have 3+ pitting edema
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a significant difference in calf circumference between the legs is a classic sign of DVT. This is due to the obstruction of blood flow in the deep veins of the leg, leading to swelling in the affected limb. Choices A, B, and D are not typical findings of DVT. Choice A describes a neurological response, choice B indicates a bruise on the right calf, and choice D describes pitting edema in both lower extremities, which are not specific signs of DVT.
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The nurse is caring for a group of clients on a surgical unit. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who is two days post knee surgery and describes pain at a "4" on a 1 to 10 scale
- B. A client who is one day post bowel resection with no bowel sounds
- C. A client who is 8 hours post appendectomy with urinary output of 480 ml
- D. A client who was admitted with severe abdominal pain and suddenly has no pain
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A sudden absence of pain in a client with severe abdominal pain may indicate a serious condition such as internal bleeding. This sudden change in pain status requires immediate assessment to rule out any life-threatening complications. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an acute change in the client's condition that would necessitate immediate attention compared to sudden pain relief in a client with severe abdominal pain.
What should the nurse monitor for during the IV infusion of vasopressin (Pitressin) in a client with bleeding esophageal varices?
- A. Vasodilatation of the extremities
- B. Chest pain and dysrhythmia
- C. Hypotension and tachycardia
- D. Decreasing GI cramping and nausea
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During the IV infusion of vasopressin in a client with bleeding esophageal varices, the nurse should monitor for chest pain and dysrhythmia. Vasopressin is a vasoconstrictor that can cause cardiovascular effects, including chest pain and dysrhythmias. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as vasopressin is not expected to cause vasodilatation of the extremities, hypotension, tachycardia, or improvements in GI symptoms such as cramping and nausea.
Where should the nurse choose as the best location to begin a screening program for hypothyroidism?
- A. A business and professional women's group.
- B. An African-American senior citizens center.
- C. A daycare center in a Hispanic neighborhood.
- D. An after-school center for Native-American teens.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best location for beginning a screening program for hypothyroidism would be an African-American senior citizens center. This choice is the most suitable as hypothyroidism is more prevalent among older adults, and African-American seniors are at a higher risk for this condition due to various factors like genetics and lifestyle. Choices A, C, and D are less appropriate because hypothyroidism is not specifically linked to business and professional women, Hispanic children, or Native-American teens. Targeting the high-risk group, which in this case, are African-American seniors, increases the chances of successful screening and early detection.
Following an open reduction and internal fixation of a compound fracture of the leg, a male client complains of "a tingly sensation" in his left foot. The nurse determines the client's left pedal pulses are diminished. Based on these findings, what is the client's greatest risk?
- A. Reduce pulmonary ventilation and oxygenation related to fat embolism.
- B. Neurovascular and circulation compromise related to compartment syndrome.
- C. Wound infection and delayed healing due to fractured bone protrusion.
- D. Venous stasis and thrombophlebitis related to postoperative immobility.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Compartment syndrome is a serious condition that can occur following trauma or surgery, leading to compromised neurovascular status in the affected limb. Symptoms include pain, paresthesia (tingling sensation), and diminished pulses. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can result in tissue damage and potential loss of limb function. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the neurovascular compromise associated with compartment syndrome.
When preparing to discharge a male client who has been hospitalized for an adrenal crisis, the client expresses concern about having another crisis. He tells the nurse that he wants to stay in the hospital a few more days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions
- B. Schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment
- C. Obtain a blood cortisol level before discharge
- D. Encourage the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention is to schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment. This option addresses the client's concerns and provides support for managing stress and preventing future crises, which is crucial for the client's long-term care. Administering antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions (Choice A) may not effectively address the underlying concerns. Obtaining a blood cortisol level before discharge (Choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Encouraging the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days (Choice D) is not the best course of action as it may not address the client's anxiety and could potentially lead to other issues.