Nokea
Which best describes a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?
- A. Erythema and pain
- B. Skin showing erythema followed by blister formation
- C. Destruction of all layers of skin evident with extension into subcutaneous tissue
- D. Destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A full-thickness (third-degree) burn involves the destruction of all layers of skin, including the epidermis, dermis, and extending into the subcutaneous tissue. This type of burn results in significant tissue damage and can appear pale, charred, or leathery. Choice A is incorrect as erythema and pain are more characteristic of superficial burns. Choice B describes a partial-thickness burn where the skin shows erythema followed by blister formation, involving the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a deeper type of injury involving structures beyond the skin layers, such as muscle, fascia, and bone, which is not specific to a full-thickness burn.
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The nurse is implementing care for a school-age child admitted to the pediatric intensive care unit with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which prescribed intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Begin 0.9% saline solution intravenously as prescribed
- B. Administer regular insulin intravenously as prescribed
- C. Place the child on a cardiac monitor
- D. Place the child on a pulse oximetry monitor
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct first intervention when managing a child with diabetic ketoacidosis is to begin intravenous saline solution to address dehydration and restore electrolyte balance. Rehydration is essential to improve perfusion and correct electrolyte imbalances. Administering insulin without addressing dehydration can potentially lead to further complications. Placing the child on a cardiac monitor or pulse oximetry monitor is important but not the initial priority in managing DKA.
The healthcare provider notes that a child has lost 8 pounds after 4 days of hospitalization for acute glomerulonephritis. This is most likely the result of
- A. poor appetite
- B. increased potassium intake
- C. reduction of edema
- D. restriction to bed rest
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In acute glomerulonephritis, weight loss is most likely due to the reduction of edema. Edema is a common symptom of glomerulonephritis, which causes fluid retention and swelling in the body. As treatment progresses and the condition improves, the reduction of edema leads to weight loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the underlying pathophysiology of acute glomerulonephritis and its impact on weight loss.
A 6-month-old infant is admitted with a diagnosis of respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). What should the nurse include in the care plan?
- A. Providing small, frequent feedings
- B. Administering antibiotics
- C. Maintaining strict isolation
- D. Elevating the head of the bed
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed is essential in the care of an infant with RSV as it helps improve breathing by reducing congestion and promoting drainage. This position also aids in maintaining patent airways and can enhance comfort for the infant. Providing small, frequent feedings (Choice A) is generally appropriate for infants but is not a specific intervention for RSV. Administering antibiotics (Choice B) is not indicated for RSV, as it is a viral infection and antibiotics are ineffective against viruses. Maintaining strict isolation (Choice C) is important to prevent the spread of infections, but it is not a direct care intervention for managing RSV symptoms.
The healthcare professional is assessing a 4-year-old client. Which finding suggests to the healthcare professional this child may have a genetic disorder?
- A. Inquiry reveals the child had feeding problems.
- B. The child weighs 40 lb (18.2 kg) and is 40 in (101.6 cm) in height.
- C. The child has low-set ears with lobe creases.
- D. The child can hop on one foot but cannot skip.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Low-set ears with lobe creases are often associated with genetic disorders and can indicate underlying chromosomal abnormalities. This physical characteristic is known to be a common sign in various syndromes like Down syndrome. Choices A, B, and D are not directly linked to genetic disorders. Feeding problems and specific weight/height measurements are more general indicators of growth and development, while the ability to hop on one foot but not skip is a developmental milestone assessment that does not specifically point towards a genetic disorder.
Which of the following findings would indicate altered mental status in a small child?
- A. Recognition of the parents
- B. Fright at the EMT-B's presence
- C. Lack of attention to the EMT-B's presence
- D. Consistent eye contact with the EMT-B
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In small children, altered mental status can manifest as a lack of attention to the presence of unfamiliar individuals, such as the EMT-B. This lack of engagement may indicate confusion, disorientation, or impaired cognitive function. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as recognizing parents, exhibiting fear, or maintaining consistent eye contact do not necessarily indicate altered mental status. Recognizing parents is a normal response, fear can be a typical reaction to unfamiliar situations, and making eye contact may be a sign of curiosity or comfort rather than a reflection of mental status.