Nokea
Which cells are present in a male age five?
- A. spermatocytes
- B. spermatozoa
- C. spermatogonia
- D. spermatid
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: spermatogonia. At the age of five, boys have not reached puberty yet, so they do not produce sperm cells. Spermatogonia are the precursor cells that give rise to sperm cells later in puberty. Spermatocytes are the cells that undergo meiosis to form sperm cells, spermatozoa are mature sperm cells, and spermatids are the immediate precursors to sperm cells. Therefore, the only cells present in a male age five would be spermatogonia, as they are the early-stage cells in the process of spermatogenesis.
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Concerning Muller’s cells, all are true except:
- A. They share in the formation of the limiting membranes.
- B. They are nerve cells.
- C. They have long processes.
- D. Their nuclei are present in the inner nuclear layer.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: B: They are nerve cells.
Rationale: Muller's cells are a type of glial cell in the retina, not nerve cells. They provide structural support and play a role in maintaining the retinal environment. Other choices are true: A) They form limiting membranes, C) They have long processes, and D) Their nuclei are in the inner nuclear layer.
Structurally, the testicle is made up of:
- A. intratesticular spermatic ducts;
- B. lobules, delineated by connective septa;
- C. the cortical zone, in the center;
- D. the medullar zone, at the periphery;
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: lobules, delineated by connective septa. The testicle is structurally organized into lobules separated by connective tissue septa. Each lobule contains seminiferous tubules where sperm production occurs. This organization allows for efficient production and transport of sperm.
Incorrect choices:
A: Intratesticular spermatic ducts - Incorrect, as the testicle contains seminiferous tubules, not spermatic ducts.
C: The cortical zone, in the center - Incorrect, as the testicle structure does not have a defined cortical zone.
D: The medullar zone, at the periphery - Incorrect, as the medullary zone is not at the periphery but rather towards the center of the testicle.
After a client has had a needle biopsy of the prostate gland using the transrectal approach, which statement is essential to include in the client teaching plan?
- A. The doctor will call you about the test results in a day or two.
- B. Serious infections frequently occur as a complication of this test.
- C. You will need to call the doctor if you have a fever or chills.
- D. It is normal to have rectal bleeding for a few days after the test.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fever and chills may indicate infection, a potential complication requiring prompt medical attention.
A patient asks when she can stop having Pap (Papanicolaou) tests. What is the nurse’s most appropriate response?
- A. Until you are no longer sexually active.
- B. Through age 65.
- C. Until you begin menopause.
- D. Through the end of menopause.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Through age 65. This is because current guidelines recommend that women continue to have Pap tests every 3-5 years until age 65, assuming previous tests have been normal. This age cutoff is based on the decreasing risk of cervical cancer with age and the low likelihood of developing new HPV infections after this age. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the most up-to-date screening recommendations and may lead to unnecessary testing or missed opportunities for appropriate screening.
The testosterone secretion is controlled by:
- A. the FSH;
- B. the LH;
- C. the corticoadrenal;
- D. the negative feedback of posterior pituitary;
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: LH (luteinizing hormone) is produced by the pituitary gland and plays a key role in stimulating the Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone.
Step 2: Testosterone secretion is directly controlled by the LH through this stimulation.
Step 3: FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) is involved in sperm production, not testosterone secretion.
Step 4: Corticoadrenal hormones are related to stress response, not testosterone regulation.
Step 5: Negative feedback from the posterior pituitary does not directly control testosterone secretion.
Therefore, the correct answer is B (the LH) as it directly influences testosterone production.