Nokea
Which client has the highest risk of ovarian cancer?
- A. 30-year old woman taking contraceptives
- B. 45-year old woman who has never been pregnant
- C. 40-year old woman with three children
- D. 36-year old woman who had her first child at age 22
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 45-year old woman who has never been pregnant. The risk of ovarian cancer increases with age and nulliparity (never having been pregnant) is a significant risk factor. The older a woman gets without having been pregnant, the higher her risk of developing ovarian cancer. The other choices do not have as high of a risk factor for ovarian cancer. Choice A, a 30-year old woman taking contraceptives, actually reduces the risk of ovarian cancer. Choice C, a 40-year old woman with three children, and choice D, a 36-year old woman who had her first child at age 22, both have lower risk factors compared to choice B.
You may also like to solve these questions
Nurse Nancy also gives a lecture at the community health center about the diet for patients with ulcerative colitis. Which one is appropriate?
- A. high calorie, low protein
- B. low fat, high fiber
- C. high protein, low residue
- D. low sodium, high carbohydrate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: high protein, low residue. For patients with ulcerative colitis, a high protein diet helps in tissue healing and repair. Low residue foods are recommended to reduce bowel irritation. Choice A is incorrect because low protein can impair healing. Choice B is unsuitable as high fiber may worsen symptoms. Choice D is not ideal as high carbohydrate can be difficult to digest for colitis patients.
Once admitted to hospital the physician indicates that Mr. Gubatan is a paraplegic. The family asks the nurse what that means. The nurse explains that:
- A. Upper extremities are paralyzed
- B. Both lower and upper extremities are
- C. Lower extremities are paralyzed paralyzed
- D. One side of the body is paralyzed
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C):
1. Paraplegia is a condition where both lower extremities are paralyzed.
2. The prefix "para-" means alongside or beside, indicating that both legs are affected.
3. The nurse would explain to the family that Mr. Gubatan has paralysis in his lower extremities only.
4. This aligns with the medical definition of paraplegia.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A. Upper extremities being paralyzed is not indicative of paraplegia, as paraplegia specifically refers to lower extremity paralysis.
B. Both lower and upper extremities being paralyzed is suggestive of quadriplegia, not paraplegia.
D. One side of the body being paralyzed describes hemiplegia, not paraplegia.
What discharge teaching is most important to help the patient who has had a splenectomy prevent infection?
- A. Avoid showering for 1 week.
- B. Sleep in a semi-fowler’s position.
- C. Receive vaccines against infection.
- D. Stay on antibiotics for life.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Receive vaccines against infection. Following a splenectomy, the patient is at an increased risk of infection due to the absence of the spleen's immune function. Vaccines help boost the body's immunity against specific pathogens, reducing the risk of infections. This is crucial for preventing post-splenectomy infections.
Now, let's analyze the other choices:
A: Avoid showering for 1 week - There is no evidence to support that avoiding showering would prevent infection after a splenectomy.
B: Sleep in a semi-fowler’s position - Positioning does not directly impact infection prevention post-splenectomy.
D: Stay on antibiotics for life - Long-term antibiotic use can lead to antibiotic resistance and is not recommended unless specifically indicated for a different reason.
The nurse provides care for a client with deep partial-thickness burns. What could cause a reduced hematocrit (Hct) in this client?
- A. Hypoalbuminemia with hemoconcentration
- B. Volume overload with hemodilution
- C. Metabolic acidosis
- D. Lack of erythropoeitin factor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Volume overload with hemodilution. In deep partial-thickness burns, there can be fluid shifts leading to volume overload. This excess fluid in the intravascular space can dilute the blood, resulting in a decreased hematocrit (Hct). Reduced Hct indicates lower concentration of red blood cells in the blood. Other choices are incorrect because hypoalbuminemia would lead to hemoconcentration, metabolic acidosis would not directly cause a reduced Hct, and lack of erythropoietin factor would primarily affect erythropoiesis but not directly lead to decreased Hct.
Hemodynamic monitoring by means of a multilumen pulmonary artery catheter can provide detailed information about:
- A. Preload
- B. Afterload
- C. Cardiac output
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a multilumen pulmonary artery catheter can provide detailed information about preload, afterload, and cardiac output. Preload refers to the volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole, afterload is the resistance the heart has to overcome to eject blood, and cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute. This catheter allows for direct measurement of these parameters by monitoring pressures in the pulmonary artery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually as they do not encompass the full range of information that can be obtained with a multilumen pulmonary artery catheter.