Nokea
Which client is at highest risk for ectopic pregnancy?
- A. A client with a history of pelvic inflammatory disease
- B. A client with a normal ultrasound
- C. A client with regular menstrual cycles
- D. A client taking prenatal vitamins
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pelvic inflammatory disease increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy by causing tubal scarring, which can impede embryo passage.
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The pregnant client tells the nurse that she smokes two packs per day (PPD) of cigarettes, has smoked in other pregnancies, and has never had any problems. What is the nurse’s best response?
- A. “I’m glad that your other pregnancies went well. Smoking can cause both maternal and fetal problems, and it is best if you could quit smoking.”
- B. “You need to stop smoking for the baby’s sake. You could have a spontaneous abortion with this pregnancy if you continue to smoke.”
- C. “Smoking can lead to having a large baby, which can make delivery difficult. You may even need a cesarean section.”
- D. “Smoking less would eliminate the risk for your baby, and you would feel healthier during your pregnancy.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse is acknowledging that the client did not experience problems with her other pregnancies but is also informing the client that smoking can cause maternal and fetal problems during pregnancy. Telling the client to stop smoking for the baby’s sake is confrontational, making the client less likely to listen to the nurse’s teaching. Although spontaneous abortion is associated with tobacco use during pregnancy, the nurse is using a scare tactic rather than therapeutic communication. Smoking can lead to a fetus that is small for gestational age, not a large baby. Decreasing her smoking intake should be suggested; however, it does not eliminate the risk to the baby completely.
The 38-year-old pregnant client at 22 weeks’ gestation has just been told she has hydramnios after undergoing a sonogram for size greater than dates. The nurse should further assess for which conditions associated with hydramnios? Select all that apply.
- A. A congenital anomaly
- B. Gestational diabetes
- C. Chronic hypertension
- D. TORCH infections
- E. Preeclampsia
Correct Answer: A,B,D
Rationale: In cases of anencephaly, the fetus is thought to urinate excessively because of overstimulation of the cerebrospinal centers, resulting in hydramnios. The nurse should further assess for gestational diabetes. Hydramnios is thought to occur from excessive fetal urination due to fetal hyperglycemia. Infants with mothers infected with toxoplasmosis, rubella, CMV, or herpes simplex virus infections (TORCH) are more likely to have hydramnios due to the inflammatory response and fluid accumulation. Chronic hypertension is not associated with excess amniotic fluid. Preeclampsia is not associated with excess amniotic fluid.
The laboring client in the first stage of labor is talking and laughing with her husband. The nurse should conclude that the client is probably in what phase?
- A. Transition
- B. Active
- C. Active pushing
- D. Latent
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During the latent phase (1—3 cm), the client is usually happy and talkative. During the transition phase (8—10 cm), the client is usually more restless, irritable, and more likely to lose control. During the active phase (4—7 cm), the client may become more anxious and fatigued and needs to concentrate on breathing techniques to cope with the increasingly stronger contractions. The client who is actively pushing is focusing on how effective she is in the descent of the fetus and concentrating on how she is coping with contractions. She is usually not expressing happiness or laughter, and is not talkative.
The client at 31 weeks’ gestation is diagnosed with mild preeclampsia and placed on home management. What information should the nurse include when providing home management instructions? Select all that apply.
- A. “Plan for hospitalization when nearing 36 weeks’ gestation.”
- B. “Weigh daily and inform the HCP of a sudden increase in weight.”
- C. “Home care will be consulted to take your blood pressure (BP) daily.”
- D. “Perform stretching and range-of-motion exercises twice daily.”
- E. “Rest as much as possible, especially in the lateral recumbent position.”
Correct Answer: B,D,E
Rationale: A sudden weight gain could indicate that the mild preeclampsia is uncontrolled and the client is retaining fluid. The HCP should be consulted. Stretching and ROM exercises can help prevent thrombophlebitis and venous stasis. The lateral recumbent position improves uteroplacental blood flow, reduces maternal BP, and promotes diuresis. A diagnosis of mild preeclampsia does not require hospitalization during the antepartum period unless home management fails to reduce the client’s BP, or other complications occur. BP monitoring every 4 to 6 hours is recommended for the client with mild preeclampsia, but the BP can be taken by the client and does not require a consult with home care.
The clinic nurse reviews the laboratory results illustrated from the postpartum client who is 3 days postdelivery. What should the nurse do in response to these results?
- A. Document the laboratory report findings
- B. Assess the client for increased lochia
- C. Assess the client’s temperature orally
- D. Notify the health care provider immediately
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The only action required is to document the findings; all values are within expected parameters. Nonpathological leukocytosis often occurs during labor and in the immediate postpartum period because labor produces a mild pro-inflammatory state. WBCs should return to normal by the end of the first postpartum week. Hct and Hgb will begin to decrease on postpartum day 3 or 4 from hemodilution. Assessing the client’s lochia is unnecessary with these results. Assessing the client’s temperature is unnecessary with these results. Notifying the HCP is unnecessary with these results.